Does part of the pre-trib rapture doctrine teach that no one dies during the 7-year Tribulation and 1,000 years following?
Does part of the pre-trib rapture doctrine teach that no one dies during the 7-year Tribulation and 1,000 years following?
In my experience, most premillennialists believe people will die during both.
That is what I thought. I don't see how 1 Corinthians 15:54 fits in though. This is part of a passage frequently used as support of the pre-trib rapture, but it says the saying "Death is swallowed up in victory" comes to pass at that time. It seems if death is defeated, death will no longer happen.
Death is swallowed up in victory because of Christ’s victory.
It has nothing to do with escaping physical death
1Co 15:54 So when this corruptible shall have put on incorruption, [ Dead believers in Christ, who are raised first] and this mortal shall have put on immortality, [living believers in Christ who shall not see death, but shall be changed] then shall be brought to pass the saying that is written, Death is swallowed up in victory. [Death i does not occur for those taken who are alive] - Well, AMEN!! GLORY TO GOD!!
Ya'll that don't believe that can go sit around the table with the Steve Anderson crowd at Denny's while waiting for the mid-Trib whatever he calls it "rapture". Have a good time.
1Co 15:54 So when this corruptible shall have put on incorruption, [ Dead believers in Christ, who are raised first] and this mortal shall have put on immortality, [living believers in Christ who shall not see death, but shall be changed] then shall be brought to pass the saying that is written, Death is swallowed up in victory. [Death i does not occur for those taken who are alive] - Well, AMEN!! GLORY TO GOD!!
Ya'll that don't believe that can go sit around the table with the Steve Anderson crowd at Denny's while waiting for the mid-Trib whatever he calls it "rapture". Have a good time.
It says "When... and... then...". So both parts before and after the "and" are relevant to the "then". The 1st part would not need to be mentioned in the same sentence if the "then" only applies to the 2nd part.
You tell that to all the folks in Glory right now that death wasn't swallowed up in victory.It says "When... and... then...". So both parts before and after the "and" are relevant to the "then". The 1st part would not need to be mentioned in the same sentence if the "then" only applies to the 2nd part.
You tell that to all the folks in Glory right now that death wasn't swallowed up in victory.
So a new doctrine here on the FFF. After the rapture, no one dies. Tim LaHaye's gonna have to rewrite all those books. John's gonna have to rewrite Revelation.
Oh. Phhh.. no one cares about your "challenge". Have a nice day.Not saying no one dies after the rapture. I'm challenging the rapture doctrine.
You tell that to all the folks in Glory right now that death wasn't swallowed up in victory.
So a new doctrine here on the FFF. After the rapture, no one dies. Tim LaHaye's gonna have to rewrite all those books. John's gonna have to rewrite Revelation.
You tell that to all the folks in Glory right now that death wasn't swallowed up in victory.
Oh. Phhh.. no one cares about your "challenge". Have a nice day.
Does part of the pre-trib rapture doctrine teach that no one dies during the 7-year Tribulation and 1,000 years following?
I am no expert in Bible prophecy (I'm not sure they exist) but one verse that has always puzzled me is Isaiah 65:20, which says:
"No more shall there be in it an infant who lives but a few days, or an old man who does not fill out his days, for the young man shall die a hundred years old,
and the sinner a hundred years old shall be accursed." This verse speaks of death. The opening verse of this passage (v. 17) tells us, “For behold, I create new heavens and a new earth, and the former things shall not be remembered or come into mind." This, of course is speaking of a time after human history (Revelation 21:1). Obviously there is no death in heaven (or the new earth) yet this verse speaks of death. Some have said it refers to the millennium. Personally, I don't know. I have looked in a multitude of commentaries and no reformed commentator explains it. The only explanation I have ever found is that it refers to the 1,000 year period spoken of in Revelation 20. Again, I don't know. Any thoughts would be appreciated.
I would venture there is as much if not more interest in her ‘challenge’ as anything you or I have posted.