- Joined
- May 5, 2016
- Messages
- 15,057
- Reaction score
- 1,056
- Points
- 113
That wasn't the question. Logos understood what I was saying. His "could be" response is exactly that.
Yes, NT writers translated OT passages into Greek.
He listened for 18 hours!
- Thread starter Tarheel Baptist
- Start date
Yes, NT writers translated OT passages into Greek.
Perhaps and perhaps not. You merely assume that the NT writers translated OT passages into Greek, but it is one of two or three possibilities. There is the other possibility that it was God who gave them the words in Greek for the OT passages in Hebrew without the NT writers themselves having to do any translating. Some consider a third possibility that they cited the words from already translated Greek Old Testament without doing any translating themselves.
Regardless of which of the three actually happened, it was part of the giving of the New Testament to the apostles and NT prophets by a direct miracle of inspiration of God so that it would not be the same thing as Bible translating without any direct miracle of inspiration.
Last edited:
Was anything translated into English?
No. They didn't translate OT reference into Greek. They quoted OT references that had already been translated by "The 70".
Do you know of a Greek reference that was not a quote?
Translators often come up with different constructs and use different words in translating the same foreign words. For example, in English, you have Testament and Covenant.
- Joined
- May 5, 2016
- Messages
- 15,057
- Reaction score
- 1,056
- Points
- 113
LOL! "Deal Lord, please heal the blind!"
Sometimes KJV-only advocates seem to be blind, blind to their use of fallacies in their human KJV-only reasoning, blind to their use of unjust divers measures [double standards] in their comparisons of Bible translations, and blind to their showing of partiality to one exclusive group of Church of England priests/critics in 1611.
Are you suggesting that Bibles, translated from Greek and Hebrew, into the English language loses authority and is no longer profitable for righteousness?
Can a person be saved by reading an English translation?
Seems a rather meaningless prayer to you. It shouldn't be so difficult to accept the truth. All you have to do to prove me wrong is find a OT quote in the NT that is altered.
I never implied that salvation depended upon such. Salvation depends upon Truth. Where Truth remains, the seed flourishes.
However, there is a very real issue with most not knowing anything about the process and others accepting the choices of those who were never given authority for such.
Most definitely true.
Couldn't agree more we all just need to get back to the real Word of God - The Geneva Bible. If it was good enough for great, great, great, great grandpa and grandma it's good enough for me.
How is Truth communicated to people who only speak English?
Do they need to learn Greek to get to that Truth?
Your sweeping statements are leaving doubt and confusion regarding the Gospel.
- Joined
- May 5, 2016
- Messages
- 15,057
- Reaction score
- 1,056
- Points
- 113
Boy, you ARE an idiot, aren't you?
Habakkuk 2:4 (KJV) Behold, his soul which is lifted up is not upright in him: but the just shall live by his faith.
Romans 1:17 (KJV) For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith.
I'm not wasting any of my time to explain why there is a difference as you are a Bible truth rejector.
It is typical for KJV-only advocates to throw out terms of accusation without defining them and without proving them to be true.
KJV-only advocates themselves could be soundly considered Bible truth rejecters since they in effect reject the scriptural truth against showing partiality to one exclusive group of Church of England priests/critics in 1611, the scriptural truth concerning use of just measures/standards and non-use of unjust divers measures, the scriptural truth that would reject any attempts to bind or limit the word of God to the textual criticism decision, Bible-revision decisions, and translation decisions of one exclusive group, the scriptural truth of proving all things, and the scriptural truth concerning truth that would condemn the use of fallacies [false arguments] such as begging the question in their human, erroneous, non-scriptural KJV-only reasoning.
1. Through study and reflection upon multiple English translation that should progress to learning the translation process and all it entales.
2. Why did you study Greek? It is obvious from your own actions you believe it was important to study Greek to know the Truth.
3. That is your narrative. You're wrong. I'm trying to get people to really know the Truth. Not rely upon others but get it from the source. Just like those noble Christians at Brea.
I see you're having difficulty addressing the issue without getting mad that you're inadequacies will be on display. They are.
Your quote from Hab 2:4 translated into English is wrong. Paul did not quote the MT from the 9th century. Paul quoted the work of the 70. Word for word.
I don't expect you to know this. You've never even tried to study the issue at all. Your lack of knowledge is on full display.[/QUOTE]
Last edited:
The problem with the KJVO crowd is that the KJV has become the standard over the Greek & Hebrew. The goal is to get as close to what the original authors of the Greek & Hebrew said, not to get as close to the KJV as possible. What you consider "leaving out" may very well be the KJV "adding in".
I don't think the differences are as dramatic as you try to make them out to be.
Depends on which line of manuscripts you follow.
The oldest and most reliable are not the 'most reliable'.
"...most reliable are not the most reliable"
How are the most reliable not the most reliable?