Divorce: The Sin Preachers Nod & Wink At

[Ransom]

A broader, more general term often translated as "sexual immorality" or "fornication".

And why can porneia not also encompass moicheia? The existence of a general term does not exclude it being used for things with their own specific term.

As I said in my previous post, Paul uses porneia in 1 Cor. 5:1, describing a relationship that might be incestuous (for which koine Greek does not have a specific term) but was most definitely adulterous. And in 1 Cor. 7:2, he writes, "because of the temptation to sexual immorality porneia, each man should have his own wife and each woman her own husband." Clearly he's talking about sexual acts that would violate the exclusivity of the marriage covenant, which is, by definition, adultery.

 

[DoctorDuck]

And why can porneia not also encompass moicheia? The existence of a general term does not exclude it being used for things with their own specific term.

As I said in my previous post, Paul uses porneia in 1 Cor. 5:1, describing a relationship that might be incestuous (for which koine Greek does not have a specific term) but was most definitely adulterous. And in 1 Cor. 7:2, he writes, "because of the temptation to sexual immorality porneia, each man should have his own wife and each woman her own husband." Clearly he's talking about sexual acts that would violate the exclusivity of the marriage covenant, which is, by definition, adultery.

So are you arguing that John Piper’s viewpoint is correct, or that it could be correct? Am I incorrect in stating that Piper’s view is somewhat halfway between the traditional Catholic and Protestant views? Or am I misunderstanding?

 

[Ransom]

So are you arguing that John Piper’s viewpoint is correct, or that it could be correct? Am I incorrect in stating that Piper’s view is somewhat halfway between the traditional Catholic and Protestant views? Or am I misunderstanding?

If you mean Piper's view that Jesus uses porneia to mean infidelity that betrays the betrothal agreement, then it seems to me, a fortiori, that porneia committed after the marriage covenant has been affirmed and consummated would be the greater offence; so if divorce was justifiable in the former case, it would be also in the latter.

 

[ALAYMAN]

Why?

Because you are saying that the issue we are discussing (divorce, remarriage, perpetual adultery) is to be realized through the essence of interpretation, yet in my query to you asking how you derive your hermeneutic for your interpretation you dismissed it out of hand, but you invoke the very process of interpretive schemes here with Ransom. Secondly, you shy away from wanting to deal with other people's interpretations, and in numerous cases your dismissive attitude is with people citing Jesus' very words..... ironic.

 

[DoctorDuck]

OK, so to summarize, depending upon how you (your church/denomination/theologians) interpret these Ancient Greek words, a divorced-remarried person is or might be living in a perpetual state of adultery. That’s how I interpret it. And NONE of you have shown that this is categorically false. At best, you have shown it might be false.

 

[DoctorDuck]

Because you are saying that the issue we are discussing (divorce, remarriage, perpetual adultery) is to be realized through the essence of interpretation, yet in my query to you asking how you derive your hermeneutic for your interpretation you dismissed it out of hand, but you invoke the very process of interpretive schemes here with Ransom. Secondly, you shy away from wanting to deal with other people's interpretations, and in numerous cases your dismissive attitude is with people citing Jesus' very words..... ironic.

Well, in light of that whole “casting pearls before swine” thing, I wouldn’t worry too much about it.