An offshoot of the freewill/theodicy thread.

God does commit to and allows Calamity! Isn't calamity "evil?" I mean, I know it's not...it can be done for good...but in the opinion of the world?

Yes, natural evil (Isaiah 45:7) is clearly God's way of making the natural world conform to His rightful place of judgment. And prophet's conflating that sort of "evil" with moral evil, mixing categories inappropriately.
 
Your dictionary agreed.

It agreed that your definition is ONE of the definitions in the semantic range. So again....


.... are you seriously insisting that EVERY semantic range of usage of the word "evil" in the Bible falls under the meaning of "Tend to injury" (as opposed to "Depravity; corruption of heart, or disposition to commit wickedness; malignity.")?
 
From Etymonline:
"Anything that causes injury, anything that harms or is likely to harm; a malady or disease; conduct contrary to standards of morals or righteousness," Old English yfel (see evil (adj.)).
I suggest you look up the fallacy of illegitimate totality transfer: assuming that all definitions of a word apply equally in every instance.

Obviously evil and good are not amoral. To call anything "evil" or "good" is to make a moral judgment.
 
I suggest you look up the fallacy of illegitimate totality transfer: assuming that all definitions of a word apply equally in every instance.

Obviously evil and good are not amoral. To call anything "evil" or "good" is to make a moral judgment.
Let's say I go along with you here....
Can we then say that evil is either moral or immoral, depending on how it is applied?
How do you get around God doing evil, and not let that inform you?
I mean, have you never heard the term: "necessary evil"?
Is Evil bisectional?
Wouldn't the context, dictate the morality of the evil work in question?
As a noun, evil is harmful.
Every dictionary agrees.
 
Sure, whatever.
If not amoral, then how can evil be a tool in both the hand of God, and wicked men?
I'm asking for your take on this, not imploring you to see mine.
I find this to be an important subject.
I'm defending God here ( tho he needs none).
I have to rectify that God can think to do evil, repent of it, and that He is absolutely perfect in doing so, and the definition of the n "Evil", satisfies me here.

How do you deal with the question/subject?
 
If not amoral, then how can evil be a tool in both the hand of God, and wicked men?
I'm asking for your take on this, not imploring you to see mine.
I find this to be an important subject.
I'm defending God here ( tho he needs none).
I have to rectify that God can think to do evil, repent of it, and that He is absolutely perfect in doing so, and the definition of the n "Evil", satisfies me here.

How do you deal with the question/subject?
So, you're telling us you're a dealer????? Do you deal poker or blackjack?
 
So, back to the OP. It is often argued from a completely philosophical point that ultimate and complete freedom to choose is an inherently good thing in discussions of freewill. Why does this rationale, philosophically speaking, disappear from the conversation when the creature enters the perfect environment of heaven (after all, wasn’t Lucifer in heaven at one time and morally good)?
 
Whew boi...a can of worms could be opened here....
Popcorn!
 
I thought this issue may be best broken out into its own thread.

For those that believe in the ultimate self-determination of the soul/will, what is your rationale behind why a regenerated/saved person will be unable to use that same ultimate self-determining will to choose once again to sin once we are glorified in heaven, just as Lucifer, Adam, and Eve did while in their "good" moral state(s)?
What your "Average Joe" has already said.

If you want some "Fancy Latin" to go with it: Non-Posse Peccare!

We lose the ABILITY to sin just as we currently have the absolute inability NOT TO SIN in this present life (Non-Posse, Non Peccare).

God has the inability to sin and this is the one main way we shall be "Like Him!"

I cannot explain any further and why would I even want to? I am just excited that this will one day be a reality for me!
 
What your "Average Joe" has already said.

If you want some "Fancy Latin" to go with it: Non-Posse Peccare!

We lose the ABILITY to sin just as we currently have the absolute inability NOT TO SIN in this present life (Non-Posse, Non Peccare).

God has the inability to sin and this is the one main way we shall be "Like Him!"

I cannot explain any further and why would I even want to? I am just excited that this will one day be a reality for me!

Amen BR!
 
This is fairly close to a middle position on freewill and is close to satisfying my thoughts on the subject. Link
 
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