Entering or Exiting Jericho: a contradiction in the gospels?

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christundivided said:
Different perspectives can not account for the same man being healed of Blindness at two separate events/time. In the grand scheme of things, it really doesn't matter if it was before or after. However, there is no "perspective" to be gained from believing both are accurate.

True. I agree. I don't believe this is two separate events/time. While you may not believe that anything can be gained by believing both are accurate, I believe that claiming one or both are inaccurate will end up as a loss. It is not a good starting place for understanding difficult texts to simply claim Ipsissima Vox and allow for an error in composition. This is just fuzzy thinking to me.
 
christundivided said:
AS a side note, I think it is rather silly to believe the Mark somehow influenced both Luke and Matthew.
Dumb post of the day? ;)

Nearly every synoptic scholar holds to a Markan priority.  I'm still on the fence, but I am fairly certain Luke was last amongst the 3.  So between you and the scholars... I'll go with their silliness.
 
FSSL said:
This "vertical" and "horizontal" talk is a bit fuzzy to me. The discipline of interpretation is to research the grammatical, cultural and historical aspects of the text. What do "vertical" and "horizontal" actually mean in this context? Doesn't it seem counterproductive for Bock to write commentaries while maintaining an IV approach?
Here's what I mean by it.  Vertical is referring to reading each account on its own terms.  Avoiding (not at all costs) source criticism and just interpreting Mark w/ Mark.  Horizontally would be to harmonize or use Matthew and Luke to make sense out of Mark.  The only need to do that is if we want to interpret the event.  However, the event is not inspired, only the text.  Therefore, I'd rather interpret Mark as Mark intended his work to be interpreted--his own theologically developing themes.  The same is true of Matthew and Luke and John for that matter.

Contradictions exist whether you attempt to harmonize or not. The IV advocate cannot simply hand wave them as if they do not exist. Bock, the IV promoter, does not handwave them in his commentaries.
  Let me first say that the terms ipsissima vox and ipsissima verba has more to do with the sayings of Jesus recorded in the gospels.  One is the very voice/message of Jesus (i.e. the sermon on the mount wasn't an actual sermon but a compilation of Jesus' teachings arranged and edited) and the other is the very words of Jesus (which is hard to reconcile w/ parallel counts saying similar yet slightly different things.  If we take this principle to the situation as laid out in the OP, the voice of Mark and Luke are clear regardless of the exact words--Jesus healed someone crying for mercy and acknowledging his relationship to David just before he dies "king of the Jews" in the city of David.


This assumes that those who take the ipsissima verba approach are not thankful for the seeming contradictions. The goal of understanding the synoptics is to understand the different perspectives of the writers through a researched analysis of their perspective.
I would actually qualify that it is the inerrantists who are not thankful for the contradictions.

 
Timotheos said:
christundivided said:
AS a side note, I think it is rather silly to believe the Mark somehow influenced both Luke and Matthew.
Dumb post of the day? ;)

Nearly every synoptic scholar holds to a Markan priority.  I'm still on the fence, but I am fairly certain Luke was last amongst the 3.  So between you and the scholars... I'll go with their silliness.

Okay Okay Okay... no need to get personal. Personally I might want to go with your assertion concerning internal evidence suggesting Mark represented testimony from eye witness accounts. ;)

Want to discuss the evidence? Do you really believe "Q" really existed?
 
christundivided said:
Timotheos said:
admin said:
admin said:
My question for you: As an advocate for IV, what conclusions do you make? Is it unnecessary to answer the contradiction? Are attempts to understand the seeming contradictions without value?

Bump
Conclusions: to interpret the text rather than the event and to interpret them vertically rather than horizontally.
Answer contradictions: contradictions only appear when we harmonize.  Instead, we should be thankful for them since they confirm eye-witness testimony not negate it.
Understand without value: not necessarily, but they also don't make or break a doctrine which is becoming more questionable amongst evangelical.

... AS a side note, I think it is rather silly to believe the Mark somehow influenced both Luke and Matthew.

Really? Silly? Many scholars believe that Mark was written first and that that influenced the other gospel writers.  Silly?  I think your conjecture is silly.
 
FSSL said:
christundivided said:
Different perspectives can not account for the same man being healed of Blindness at two separate events/time. In the grand scheme of things, it really doesn't matter if it was before or after. However, there is no "perspective" to be gained from believing both are accurate.

True. I agree. I don't believe this is two separate events/time. While you may not believe that anything can be gained by believing both are accurate, I believe that claiming one or both are inaccurate will end up as a loss. It is not a good starting place for understanding difficult texts to simply claim Ipsissima Vox and allow for an error in composition. This is just fuzzy thinking to me.

I don't believe this is a case of "Ipsissima Vox". Nor do I generally believe in "Ipsissima Vox". I simply believe one account is accurate the other isn't. Nothing "fuzzy" about it. Luke 1:4 is generally used to combat the ideals of "Ipsissima Vox". I agree. Luke is a great example of "Ispissima Verba". I can't say the same for Mark.

Just curious.... would your ideals of Inspiration and Inerrancy be crushed if you realized Mark contained errors from the beginning? If so, Why? I know you have come far enough in your walk with God to realize that not every choice made by others is a choice demanded of you.
 
Torrent v.3 said:
christundivided said:
Timotheos said:
admin said:
admin said:
My question for you: As an advocate for IV, what conclusions do you make? Is it unnecessary to answer the contradiction? Are attempts to understand the seeming contradictions without value?

Bump
Conclusions: to interpret the text rather than the event and to interpret them vertically rather than horizontally.
Answer contradictions: contradictions only appear when we harmonize.  Instead, we should be thankful for them since they confirm eye-witness testimony not negate it.
Understand without value: not necessarily, but they also don't make or break a doctrine which is becoming more questionable amongst evangelical.

... AS a side note, I think it is rather silly to believe the Mark somehow influenced both Luke and Matthew.

Really? Silly? Many scholars believe that Mark was written first and that that influenced the other gospel writers.  Silly?  I think your conjecture is silly.

I'm scared. Torrent is mad at me now. You know what's silly???? You don't even know why they made their choice. Now that is silly.

The irony is..... they use complete conjecture to make such assertions.
 
christundivided said:
Timotheos said:
christundivided said:
AS a side note, I think it is rather silly to believe the Mark somehow influenced both Luke and Matthew.
Dumb post of the day? ;)

Nearly every synoptic scholar holds to a Markan priority.  I'm still on the fence, but I am fairly certain Luke was last amongst the 3.  So between you and the scholars... I'll go with their silliness.

Okay Okay Okay... no need to get personal. Personally I might want to go with your assertion concerning internal evidence suggesting Mark represented testimony from eye witness accounts. ;)

Want to discuss the evidence? Do you really believe "Q" really existed?

You do know that something like 94-98% and 79-88% of Mark's gospel is also in Matthew and Luke, respectively, right? Even more so, Luke explicitly claimed he was compiling an orderly account of preexisting materials.
 
rsc2a said:
christundivided said:
Timotheos said:
christundivided said:
AS a side note, I think it is rather silly to believe the Mark somehow influenced both Luke and Matthew.
Dumb post of the day? ;)

Nearly every synoptic scholar holds to a Markan priority.  I'm still on the fence, but I am fairly certain Luke was last amongst the 3.  So between you and the scholars... I'll go with their silliness.

Okay Okay Okay... no need to get personal. Personally I might want to go with your assertion concerning internal evidence suggesting Mark represented testimony from eye witness accounts. ;)

Want to discuss the evidence? Do you really believe "Q" really existed?

You do know that something like 94-98% and 79-88% of Mark's gospel is also in Matthew and Luke, respectively, right? Even more so, Luke explicitly claimed he was compiling an orderly account of preexisting materials.

You have no idea which was first. Your percentages mean nothing. It could well be that Mark copied much of Matthew or much of Luke. You have no frame of reference. I generally believe that Matthew was among the first and I will agree that Luke was later. Where Mark comes in, no one knows.

Where did Luke claim to be using preexisting material? You don't know what material he used. He doesn't detail what he used. You're presenting nothing but conjecture.

 
christundivided said:
rsc2a said:
christundivided said:
Timotheos said:
christundivided said:
AS a side note, I think it is rather silly to believe the Mark somehow influenced both Luke and Matthew.
Dumb post of the day? ;)

Nearly every synoptic scholar holds to a Markan priority.  I'm still on the fence, but I am fairly certain Luke was last amongst the 3.  So between you and the scholars... I'll go with their silliness.

Okay Okay Okay... no need to get personal. Personally I might want to go with your assertion concerning internal evidence suggesting Mark represented testimony from eye witness accounts. ;)

Want to discuss the evidence? Do you really believe "Q" really existed?

You do know that something like 94-98% and 79-88% of Mark's gospel is also in Matthew and Luke, respectively, right? Even more so, Luke explicitly claimed he was compiling an orderly account of preexisting materials.

You have no idea which was first. Your percentages mean nothing. It could well be that Mark copied much of Matthew or much of Luke. You have no frame of reference. I generally believe that Matthew was among the first and I will agree that Luke was later. Where Mark comes in, no one knows.

Where did Luke claim to be using preexisting material? You don't know what material he used. He doesn't detail what he used. You're presenting nothing but conjecture.

And why do you generally believe that Matthew was first?  Guess?  Oh, right, evidence.  What evidence?
 
christundivided said:
Torrent v.3 said:
christundivided said:
Timotheos said:
admin said:
admin said:
My question for you: As an advocate for IV, what conclusions do you make? Is it unnecessary to answer the contradiction? Are attempts to understand the seeming contradictions without value?

Bump
Conclusions: to interpret the text rather than the event and to interpret them vertically rather than horizontally.
Answer contradictions: contradictions only appear when we harmonize.  Instead, we should be thankful for them since they confirm eye-witness testimony not negate it.
Understand without value: not necessarily, but they also don't make or break a doctrine which is becoming more questionable amongst evangelical.

... AS a side note, I think it is rather silly to believe the Mark somehow influenced both Luke and Matthew.

Really? Silly? Many scholars believe that Mark was written first and that that influenced the other gospel writers.  Silly?  I think your conjecture is silly.

I'm scared. Torrent is mad at me now. You know what's silly???? You don't even know why they made their choice. Now that is silly.

The irony is..... they use complete conjecture to make such assertions.

No. It is not complete conjecture.  Unless you were found under a rock, you know the explanations for why most biblical scholars believe in the primacy of Mark.
 
christundivided said:
rsc2a said:
christundivided said:
Timotheos said:
christundivided said:
AS a side note, I think it is rather silly to believe the Mark somehow influenced both Luke and Matthew.
Dumb post of the day? ;)

Nearly every synoptic scholar holds to a Markan priority.  I'm still on the fence, but I am fairly certain Luke was last amongst the 3.  So between you and the scholars... I'll go with their silliness.

Okay Okay Okay... no need to get personal. Personally I might want to go with your assertion concerning internal evidence suggesting Mark represented testimony from eye witness accounts. ;)

Want to discuss the evidence? Do you really believe "Q" really existed?

You do know that something like 94-98% and 79-88% of Mark's gospel is also in Matthew and Luke, respectively, right? Even more so, Luke explicitly claimed he was compiling an orderly account of preexisting materials.

You have no idea which was first. Your percentages mean nothing. It could well be that Mark copied much of Matthew or much of Luke.

That's where your theory begins to fail.

Mark would have only copied about 41% of Luke or 45% of Matthew. Why skip so much already existent material if one was trying to create an account of the life of Jesus? Furthermore, why skip so much material, yet not add anything (or very little) that is unique to your own account? Why not include the ~25% of the material that both Luke and Matthew share in your later accounting?

[quote author=christundivided]You have no frame of reference. I generally believe that Matthew was among the first and I will agree that Luke was later. Where Mark comes in, no one knows. [/quote]

I have plenty of reference including a knowledge of how later tellings of history evolve from earlier tellings. The writing becomes tighter, the information becomes greater, and the language becomes clearer. (As a general rule...among other evolutionary features.) In each of these areas, Mark appears to be the earlier source for both Matthew and Luke.

(To be fair, your position was the one favored by the early Church fathers. And, to answer your earlier question, I don't think Q is a requirement. Mark could have been written first, then Matthew with Luke borrowing from both of them.)

[quote author=christundivided]Where did Luke claim to be using preexisting material? You don't know what material he used. He doesn't detail what he used. You're presenting nothing but conjecture.[/quote]

Inasmuch as many have undertaken to compile a narrative of the things that have been accomplished among us, just as those who from the beginning were eyewitnesses and ministers of the word have delivered them to us, it seemed good to me also, having followed all things closely for some time past, to write an orderly account for you, most excellent Theophilus, that you may have certainty concerning the things you have been taught. (Luke 1:1-4, ESV)

To claim that Luke didn't reference earlier material based on his claim here is just absurd. Luke was clearly a classical historian, and looking at multiple sources was (and still is) a key method for obtaining facts for the version of history the historian is recording.
 
Sorry, other blind dudes, I can't heal you....quota is full for my up and coming bio, called 'The Gospels'.  Just because this society relegates all of you to begging near city gates, so that every time I pass through one, I run into some  ...doesn't mean I have to heal you.  One promotional healing per book tour....agent's rules, not mine, sorry.

Anishinabe

 
prophet said:
Sorry, other blind dudes, I can't heal you....quota is full for my up and coming bio, called 'The Gospels'.  Just because this society relegates all of you to begging near city gates, so that every time I pass through one, I run into some  ...doesn't mean I have to heal you.  One promotional healing per book tour....agent's rules, not mine, sorry.

Anishinabe

While he was in one of the cities, there came a man full of leprosy. And when he saw Jesus, he fell on his face and begged him, “Lord, if you will, you can make me clean.” And Jesus stretched out his hand and touched him, saying, “I will; be clean.” And immediately the leprosy left him. And he charged him to tell no one, but “go and show yourself to the priest, and make an offering for your cleansing, as Moses commanded, for a proof to them.” But now even more the report about him went abroad, and great crowds gathered to hear him and to be healed of their infirmities. But he would withdraw to desolate places and pray. (Luke 5:12-16, ESV)
 
prophet said:
Sorry, other blind dudes, I can't heal you....quota is full for my up and coming bio, called 'The Gospels'.  Just because this society relegates all of you to begging near city gates, so that every time I pass through one, I run into some  ...doesn't mean I have to heal you.  One promotional healing per book tour....agent's rules, not mine, sorry.

Anishinabe

Now there is in Jerusalem by the Sheep Gate a pool, in Aramaic called Bethesda, which has five roofed colonnades. In these lay a multitude of invalids—blind, lame, and paralyzed. One man was there who had been an invalid for thirty-eight years. When Jesus saw him lying there and knew that he had already been there a long time, he said to him, “Do you want to be healed?” The sick man answered him, “Sir, I have no one to put me into the pool when the water is stirred up, and while I am going another steps down before me.” Jesus said to him, “Get up, take up your bed, and walk.” And at once the man was healed, and he took up his bed and walked.

Now that day was the Sabbath. (John 5:2-9, ESV)

 
Torrent v.3 said:
christundivided said:
Torrent v.3 said:
christundivided said:
Timotheos said:
admin said:
admin said:
My question for you: As an advocate for IV, what conclusions do you make? Is it unnecessary to answer the contradiction? Are attempts to understand the seeming contradictions without value?

Bump
Conclusions: to interpret the text rather than the event and to interpret them vertically rather than horizontally.
Answer contradictions: contradictions only appear when we harmonize.  Instead, we should be thankful for them since they confirm eye-witness testimony not negate it.
Understand without value: not necessarily, but they also don't make or break a doctrine which is becoming more questionable amongst evangelical.

... AS a side note, I think it is rather silly to believe the Mark somehow influenced both Luke and Matthew.

Really? Silly? Many scholars believe that Mark was written first and that that influenced the other gospel writers.  Silly?  I think your conjecture is silly.

I'm scared. Torrent is mad at me now. You know what's silly???? You don't even know why they made their choice. Now that is silly.

The irony is..... they use complete conjecture to make such assertions.

No. It is not complete conjecture.  Unless you were found under a rock, you know the explanations for why most biblical scholars believe in the primacy of Mark.

By all means, share them. Make them your own. Don't just "allude" to them.
 
rsc2a said:
That's where your theory begins to fail.

Mark would have only copied about 41% of Luke or 45% of Matthew. Why skip so much already existent material if one was trying to create an account of the life of Jesus? Furthermore, why skip so much material, yet not add anything (or very little) that is unique to your own account? Why not include the ~25% of the material that both Luke and Matthew share in your later accounting?

What you present is predicated upon knowing the motive of the author and his writing style. You do not know the motive of the author nor do we have sufficient samples of the author's writings as to make such a determination. This is one of the reason I said. "You have no frame of reference".

I have plenty of reference including a knowledge of how later tellings of history evolve from earlier tellings. The writing becomes tighter, the information becomes greater, and the language becomes clearer. (As a general rule...among other evolutionary features.) In each of these areas, Mark appears to be the earlier source for both Matthew and Luke.

Did you even recognize you mentioned "as a general rule". There is a reason we use the term "general rule". There are plenty of exceptions to a "general rule". There isn't enough evidence to draw such a conclusion. Many times "scholars" form opinions and present them as "fact" instead of as a "theory". This is a problem we all have with "pride".

(To be fair, your position was the one favored by the early Church fathers. And, to answer your earlier question, I don't think Q is a requirement. Mark could have been written first, then Matthew with Luke borrowing from both of them.)

I don't base my opinion on the early church fathers. I just see it as a natural order to the recording of the Gospels. I believe the Gospel of Matthew began in Hebrew form for Hebrew converts. It would have been necessary for a "Hebrew convert" to have a documented, orderly account of the life of Christ. As such, I think Matthew would have been a very early work. I'm not saying the writing hasn't changed over time. I believe it has. Yet, I believe it began very early. Maybe in the late 30s or 40 AD. I see Luke as originating in the late 40s or early 50s. You have to admit that modern scholarly consensus place all the Gospel writings outside the explosion of the early church. I believe these writngs would have been vital to early church growth.
To claim that Luke didn't reference earlier material based on his claim here is just absurd. Luke was clearly a classical historian, and looking at multiple sources was (and still is) a key method for obtaining facts for the version of history the historian is recording.

While I can see you wanting to believe this, there really is no reason to believe it. Yes, Luke used sources, but I believe these "sources" were accounts of eye witnesses personally given to Luke. Not necessarily the "writings" of others. There is no evidence that Luke used or borrowed from another writing. There is very little doubt that "oral tradition" of the life of Christ was essential to the early development of the Church. These oral tradition would have been prevalent and would have produced "overlap" in any account of the life of Christ. To say any of the writings are the "base" of another.... is just plain conjecture. There is a recent theory that Luke was a Jew. Maybe even a Jewish priest. I am inclined to believe this.

Gill referencing "Dr Lightfoot's" take on Luke 1:1

The phrase, αναταξασθαι διηγησιν, "to set forth in order a declaration", is as Dr. Lightfoot observes, out of the Talmud (h), agreeably to the Jewish way of speaking.


 
christundivided said:
rsc2a said:
That's where your theory begins to fail.

Mark would have only copied about 41% of Luke or 45% of Matthew. Why skip so much already existent material if one was trying to create an account of the life of Jesus? Furthermore, why skip so much material, yet not add anything (or very little) that is unique to your own account? Why not include the ~25% of the material that both Luke and Matthew share in your later accounting?

What you present is predicated upon knowing the motive of the author and his writing style. You do not know the motive of the author nor do we have sufficient samples of the author's writings as to make such a determination. This is one of the reason I said. "You have no frame of reference".

Luke, for one, explicitly states his motivation, and we have more of his writing style than of many, many other authors.  :-X

[quote author=christundivided]
I have plenty of reference including a knowledge of how later tellings of history evolve from earlier tellings. The writing becomes tighter, the information becomes greater, and the language becomes clearer. (As a general rule...among other evolutionary features.) In each of these areas, Mark appears to be the earlier source for both Matthew and Luke.

Did you even recognize you mentioned "as a general rule". There is a reason we use the term "general rule". There are plenty of exceptions to a "general rule". There isn't enough evidence to draw such a conclusion. Many times "scholars" form opinions and present them as "fact" instead of as a "theory". This is a problem we all have with "pride". [/quote]

And it's up to the person challenging the general rule to give sound reasoning why this rule would be being violated. I haven't seen such evidence for your position.

[quote author=christundivided]
(To be fair, your position was the one favored by the early Church fathers. And, to answer your earlier question, I don't think Q is a requirement. Mark could have been written first, then Matthew with Luke borrowing from both of them.)

I don't base my opinion on the early church fathers. I just see it as a natural order to the recording of the Gospels. I believe the Gospel of Matthew began in Hebrew form for Hebrew converts. It would have been necessary for a "Hebrew convert" to have a documented, orderly account of the life of Christ. As such, I think Matthew would have been a very early work. I'm not saying the writing hasn't changed over time. I believe it has. Yet, I believe it began very early. Maybe in the late 30s or 40 AD. I see Luke as originating in the late 40s or early 50s.[/quote]

These dates honestly make no sense,and I know of no one else who holds to such an early dating. Furthermore, it goes against the pattern of church growth we know from history and see in Scriptures. In all likelihood,  most (if not all) of Paul's writings would have pre-dated the gospel accounts and Paul shows a clear understanding of the life and teachings of Jesus.

[quote author=christundivided]You have to admit that modern scholarly consensus place all the Gospel writings outside the explosion of the early church. I believe these writngs would have been vital to early church growth. [/quote]

Actually, I'll admit no such thing, nor do I believe these writings would have been vital to early church growth. The early church was exploding because people were more concerned with caring for others than they were concerned with musical style, influencing politics, or judging their brethren.

[quote author=christundivided]
To claim that Luke didn't reference earlier material based on his claim here is just absurd. Luke was clearly a classical historian, and looking at multiple sources was (and still is) a key method for obtaining facts for the version of history the historian is recording.

While I can see you wanting to believe this, there really is no reason to believe it. Yes, Luke used sources, but I believe these "sources" were accounts of eye witnesses personally given to Luke. Not necessarily the "writings" of others.[/quote]

It's absurd to think that Luke behaves as virtually every other historian, both ancient and modern?

[quote author=christundivided]There is no evidence that Luke used or borrowed from another writing. [/quote]

Except for the nearly identical Greek in several parallel passages in both the Matthew and Lukian gospel accounts?

[quote author=christundivided]There is very little doubt that "oral tradition" of the life of Christ was essential to the early development of the Church. These oral tradition would have been prevalent and would have produced "overlap" in any account of the life of Christ. To say any of the writings are the "base" of another.... is just plain conjecture.[/quote]

Yes...the vast majority of Bible scholars are basing their viewpoints on plain conjecture and not using reasoning at all.  ::)

[quote author=christundivided]There is a recent theory that Luke was a Jew. Maybe even a Jewish priest. I am inclined to believe this.

Gill referencing "Dr Lightfoot's" take on Luke 1:1

The phrase, αναταξασθαι διηγησιν, "to set forth in order a declaration", is as Dr. Lightfoot observes, out of the Talmud (h), agreeably to the Jewish way of speaking.[/quote]

There is? And so?
 
rsc2a said:
These dates honestly make no sense,and I know of no one else who holds to such an early dating. Furthermore, it goes against the pattern of church growth we know from history and see in Scriptures. In all likelihood,  most (if not all) of Paul's writings would have pre-dated the gospel accounts and Paul shows a clear understanding of the life and teachings of Jesus.

I don't even know why I responded to you. After this, it won't happen again. I've quoted the only thing worth responding to...

Paul shows a clear understanding because he lived during the life of Christ. Also, you're confusing the time between when a particular text is first written and when it becomes widely distributed and accepted. My dates would allow for an early introduction and proper time for them to become relevant among the assemblies. It may have taken a decade or more for this to happen. You're being very silly in your responses to me and I am tried of it. You try your best to nit pick everything I say. Go away.





 
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