KJV vs ?

[RAIDER]

One of the major topics on the FFF threads is always the Bible version discussions.  I know that there are several different opinions on the HAC FFF. 

Here is the topic for discussion - what makes another version better than the KJV or visa versa?  Do you have some examples of verses were another version got it right and the KJV got it wrong?  Do you have examples where the KJV got it right and another version got it wrong?

Rather than a broad discussion, I am looking for a detailed verse to verse comparison and why you believe one is correct and the other is wrong. 

 

[Citadel of Truth]

One example where the modern versions got it "more accurately" than the KJV is Acts 12:4:

"So when he had arrested him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four squads of soldiers to keep him, intending to bring him before the people after Passover."  (New King James Version)

"And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. (King James Version)

Not saying it is necessarily wrong to use "Easter," just more confusing and less accurate, IMHO.

 

[RAIDER]

One example where the modern versions got it "more accurately" than the KJV is Acts 12:4:

"So when he had arrested him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four squads of soldiers to keep him, intending to bring him before the people after Passover."  (New King James Version)

"And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. (King James Version)

Not saying it is necessarily wrong to use "Easter," just more confusing and less accurate, IMHO.

Thank you for a great example of the OP.  Hopefully we can have some good discussions.

 

[RAIDER]

One example where the modern versions got it "more accurately" than the KJV is Acts 12:4:

"So when he had arrested him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four squads of soldiers to keep him, intending to bring him before the people after Passover."  (New King James Version)

"And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. (King James Version)

Not saying it is necessarily wrong to use "Easter," just more confusing and less accurate, IMHO.

It is interesting that the KJV translators translated the word to "passover" 28 times and to "Easter" one time. 

 

[Bravo]

One example where the modern versions got it "more accurately" than the KJV is Acts 12:4:

"So when he had arrested him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four squads of soldiers to keep him, intending to bring him before the people after Passover."  (New King James Version)

"And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. (King James Version)

Not saying it is necessarily wrong to use "Easter," just more confusing and less accurate, IMHO.

It is interesting that the KJV translators translated the word to "passover" 28 times and to "Easter" one time.

Most likely it's referring to the pagan holiday? Would the ressurection be called Easter in the Bible days?

 

[rsc2a]

All more accurate in newer translations:

For the Lord thy God bringeth thee into a good land, a land of brooks of water, of fountains and depths that spring out of valleys and hills; A land of wheat, and barley, and vines, and fig trees, and pomegranates; a land of oil olive, and honey; A land wherein thou shalt eat bread without scarceness, thou shalt not lack any thing in it; a land whose stones are iron, and out of whose hills thou mayest dig brass. - Deut 8:7-9

Thou shalt not kill. - Exod 20:13

For the love of money is the root of all evil... 1 Tim 6:10

 

[FSSL]

1 Corinthians 7.1

1984 NIV missed it big time... Now for the matters you wrote about: It is good for a man not to marry.

KJV was better... Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman.

NIV2013 nails it... Now for the matters you wrote about: “It is good for a man not to have sexual relations with a woman.

 

[bgwilkinson]

Jdg 12:14  And he had forty sons and thirty nephews, that rode on threescore and ten ass colts: and he judged Israel eight years.  KJV

Jdg 12:14  And he had forty sons and thirty sons' sons, that rode on threescore and ten ass colts: and he judged Israel eight years.  ASV

They were grandsons, nephews is an erroneous rendering. ASV corrects this translation mistake.

 

[praise_yeshua]

The KJV is horribly wrong in Hebrews 4:8 when it teaches Jesus couldn't give rest to His people. The fact is.... Jesus is the ONLY One that can give rest to anyone of any generation.

Most people will explain this away by saying Joshua and Jesus are the same name in Greek.... but that's not the issue at all. They are not the same name in English. Context demands the use of Joshua and ALL modern versions say Joshua.

If you think Jesus and Joshua can be used interchangeably, then by all means start saying Joshua Christ in the place of Jesus Christ.

The KJV is superior in many places. One place is Colossians 2:14. Blotting is more accurate and the language of Colossians in general, is superior.  To me, Colossians is lofty speech.. I don't care what Paul said about it...

Hebrews should retain its lofty speech as well. Though I personally believe that Apollos wrote it and not Paul.

 

[praise_yeshua]

One example where the modern versions got it "more accurately" than the KJV is Acts 12:4:

"So when he had arrested him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four squads of soldiers to keep him, intending to bring him before the people after Passover."  (New King James Version)

"And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. (King James Version)

Not saying it is necessarily wrong to use "Easter," just more confusing and less accurate, IMHO.

It is interesting that the KJV translators translated the word to "passover" 28 times and to "Easter" one time.

Most likely it's referring to the pagan holiday? Would the ressurection be called Easter in the Bible days?

Very simple. The pagan holiday didn't exist when it was written. There is no way in the world to take an event that existed hundreds of years later and transport it back to the time "Passover" was written by the writer Luke.....

Not to mention the fact that Passover and Easter have never been celebrated on the same schedule. Passover is based on the Jewish calendar and can vary several weeks from Easter.... which is celebrated based on the spring lunar event. There is no doubt that Luke was writing about the Passover. None.

 

[ExFundy]

Why do you think the Bible says, "it is not good for a man to touch a women"? It leads to fornication. I am going to say this gently their are some real idiots on this forum. Is it a sin to touch a woman? No, but it has resulted in a lot of broken marriages because it led to adultery. Kjv

 

[Boomer]

One example where the modern versions got it "more accurately" than the KJV is Acts 12:4:

"So when he had arrested him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four squads of soldiers to keep him, intending to bring him before the people after Passover."  (New King James Version)

"And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. (King James Version)

Not saying it is necessarily wrong to use "Easter," just more confusing and less accurate, IMHO.

I was KJVO all of my life until about 2 years ago when I was reading through Acts again, and for the first time I wondered how Luke could have referred to "Easter" at that time period. I had read it many times before.

I pulled my John R. Rice commentary on Acts off the shelf and looked it up. Dr. Rice said that it was a mis-translation and should be rendered "Passover." I looked up the Greek word on my power Bible software, and sure enough, the word was translated "Passover" every time except this one instance in the NT. Next I wondered if the word COULD be rendered "Easter." I did a little research on Easter and the Passover. I found that this word in Acts 12:4 could not possibly be translated "Easter."

Acts 12:4 changed me from KJVO (Inerrancy in the English language) to KJV preferred (KJV is accurate, but not inerrant). I still use my KJV for devotions and preaching, and I love it dearly. I have not lost confidence in God's Word. But I believe inerrancy rests in the originals rather than any particular translation.

 

[bgwilkinson]

Php 4:5  Let your moderation be known unto all men. The Lord is at hand. KJV

People use this verse to justify mediocrity and use it to justify moderate drinking of alcoholic beverage.

Php 4:5  Let your forbearance be known unto all men. The Lord is at hand. ASV

Perhaps forbearance, though inadequate, is a fair rendering. It means in effect considerateness, the attitude of thought and will which in remembrance of others forgets self, and willingly yields up the purely personal claims of self.

Php 4:5  Let your pacient mynde be knowen vnto all men: The Lorde [is] at hande. Bishop's

Thayer Definition: 1) seemingly, suitable 2) equitable, fair, mild, gentle

Total KJV Occurrences: 5 gentle, 3 Tit_3:1-2 (2), Jam_3:17, 1Pe_2:18 moderation, 1 Phi_4:5  patient, 1 1Ti_3:3
They would have done better with either patient or gentle as they did elsewhere.

The Vulgate Latin reads, "your modesty". The Syriac, "your meekness", or "humility".

επιεικής means meekness under provocation, readiness to forgive injuries, equity in the management of business, candor in judging of the characters and actions of others, sweetness of disposition, and the entire government of the passions.

 

[FSSL]

Why do you think the Bible says, "it is not good for a man to touch a women"? It leads to fornication. I am going to say this gently their are some real idiots on this forum. Is it a sin to touch a woman? No, but it has resulted in a lot of broken marriages because it led to adultery. Kjv

I shook a woman's hand today. I fist bumped another's. I had no inappropriate feelings.

The context of 1 Cor 7 is very important.

 

[prophet]

Mar 14:1
1 After two dayes folowed ester and the dayes of swete breed. And the hye prestes and the Scrybes sought meanes how they myght take hym by crafte and put him to deeth.
(TyndaleBible)

Mar 14:12
12 And the fyrste daye of swete breed when men offer ye pascall lambe his disciples sayd vnto him:where wilt thou that we goo and prepare that thou mayst eate the ester lambe?
(TyndaleBible)

Prior to Tyndale's coining the word "passover", the Hebrew word 'paschal' was translated as "ester" in English.

In this passage, they are both used in the same verse.

Easter is Passover.

 

[praise_yeshua]

Mar 14:1
1 After two dayes folowed ester and the dayes of swete breed. And the hye prestes and the Scrybes sought meanes how they myght take hym by crafte and put him to deeth.
(TyndaleBible)

Mar 14:12
12 And the fyrste daye of swete breed when men offer ye pascall lambe his disciples sayd vnto him:where wilt thou that we goo and prepare that thou mayst eate the ester lambe?
(TyndaleBible)

Prior to Tyndale's coining the word "passover", the Hebrew word 'paschal' was translated as "ester" in English.

In this passage, they are both used in the same verse.

Easter is Passover.

The KJV isn't the only translation that made the mistake but the KJV is definitely wrong here.

Simple solution. Just prove that Easter and Passover are the same! Post the schedule for both over the..... say next 5 years. Prove they are the same event.

 

[praise_yeshua]

Why do you think the Bible says, "it is not good for a man to touch a women"? It leads to fornication. I am going to say this gently their are some real idiots on this forum. Is it a sin to touch a woman? No, but it has resulted in a lot of broken marriages because it led to adultery. Kjv

I shook a woman's hand today. I fist bumped another's. I had no inappropriate feelings.

The context of 1 Cor 7 is very important.

I hugged Mom and Sis many times when they were alive.....

 

[RAIDER]

One example where the modern versions got it "more accurately" than the KJV is Acts 12:4:

"So when he had arrested him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four squads of soldiers to keep him, intending to bring him before the people after Passover."  (New King James Version)

"And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. (King James Version)

Not saying it is necessarily wrong to use "Easter," just more confusing and less accurate, IMHO.

I was KJVO all of my life until about 2 years ago when I was reading through Acts again, and for the first time I wondered how Luke could have referred to "Easter" at that time period. I had read it many times before.

I pulled my John R. Rice commentary on Acts off the shelf and looked it up. Dr. Rice said that it was a mis-translation and should be rendered "Passover." I looked up the Greek word on my power Bible software, and sure enough, the word was translated "Passover" every time except this one instance in the NT. Next I wondered if the word COULD be rendered "Easter." I did a little research on Easter and the Passover. I found that this word in Acts 12:4 could not possibly be translated "Easter."

Acts 12:4 changed me from KJVO (Inerrancy in the English language) to KJV preferred (KJV is accurate, but not inerrant). I still use my KJV for devotions and preaching, and I love it dearly. I have not lost confidence in God's Word. But I believe inerrancy rests in the originals rather than any particular translation.

As one looks at this as a mistranslation on the part of the KJV translators does it not bring up another question - What would be their reasoning for translating the word to "Easter"?  I don't think their pen slipped. 

 

[bgwilkinson]

One example where the modern versions got it "more accurately" than the KJV is Acts 12:4:

"So when he had arrested him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four squads of soldiers to keep him, intending to bring him before the people after Passover."  (New King James Version)

"And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. (King James Version)

Not saying it is necessarily wrong to use "Easter," just more confusing and less accurate, IMHO.

I was KJVO all of my life until about 2 years ago when I was reading through Acts again, and for the first time I wondered how Luke could have referred to "Easter" at that time period. I had read it many times before.

I pulled my John R. Rice commentary on Acts off the shelf and looked it up. Dr. Rice said that it was a mis-translation and should be rendered "Passover." I looked up the Greek word on my power Bible software, and sure enough, the word was translated "Passover" every time except this one instance in the NT. Next I wondered if the word COULD be rendered "Easter." I did a little research on Easter and the Passover. I found that this word in Acts 12:4 could not possibly be translated "Easter."

Acts 12:4 changed me from KJVO (Inerrancy in the English language) to KJV preferred (KJV is accurate, but not inerrant). I still use my KJV for devotions and preaching, and I love it dearly. I have not lost confidence in God's Word. But I believe inerrancy rests in the originals rather than any particular translation.

As one looks at this as a mistranslation on the part of the KJV translators does it not bring up another question - What would be their reasoning for translating the word to "Easter"?  I don't think their pen slipped.

Because Easter is the high holy day of the Anglican and Catholic churches.

In the Book of Common Prayer you will find several holy days that are keyed to the date of Easter Sunday.

This one holy day is the most important of all in the Anglican and Catholic system.

The translators were Anglicans, of course they are going to use Easter.

James and Bancroft would have busted heads if they had not used ecclesiastical words such as church and Easter.

 

[RAIDER]

As one looks at this as a mistranslation on the part of the KJV translators does it not bring up another question - What would be their reasoning for translating the word to "Easter"?  I don't think their pen slipped.

Because Easter is the high holy day of the Anglican and Catholic churches.

In the Book of Common Prayer you will find several holy days that are keyed to the date of Easter Sunday.

This one holy day is the most important of all in the Anglican and Catholic system.

The translators were Anglicans, of course they are going to use Easter.

James and Bancroft would have busted heads if they had not used ecclesiastical words such as church and Easter.

Then why did they translate it "Passover" the other 28 times?