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To be truthful, I’d always considered that passage to be in reference to his testimony, post salvation. I recognized that some commentaries and theologians extend this idea of his reputation “without” as pertaining to pre-salvation activities as well. I don’t find anything in the text that demands that interpretation. However, I will concede that there are many people that talk about a divorce being a disqualifying factor, even if it occurred before salvation, based upon similar logic to what you are employing. Once again, I disagree with that interpretation.Moreover he must have a good report of them which are without; 1 Tim. 3:7
Does My Sexual Past Disqualify Me From Pastoring?-Piper