This verse or word could be better translated....

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As we know we have people on the HAC FFF that are KJV only.  We have others that prefer the KJV.  Others prefer another translation.  Let's use the KJV as our starting point.  For those that use or prefer another version can you point our places where the KJV translators got it wrong or where a verse or word could be better translated.

As always, one example per post.  It will really help our numbers.
 
For our conversation is in heaven; from whence also we look for the Saviour, the Lord Jesus Christ:
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But our citizenship is in heaven. And we eagerly await a Savior from there, the Lord Jesus Christ,
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But our citizenship is in heaven, and from it we await a Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ,
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For our citizenship is in heaven; whence also we wait for a Saviour, the Lord Jesus Christ:
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For the Lord thy God bringeth thee into a good land, a land of brooks of water, of fountains and depths that spring out of valleys and hills; A land of wheat, and barley, and vines, and fig trees, and pomegranates; a land of oil olive, and honey; A land wherein thou shalt eat bread without scarceness, thou shalt not lack any thing in it; a land whose stones are iron, and out of whose hills thou mayest dig brass. Deut 8:7-9 KJV


"Thou shalt not kill." Ex 20:13 KJV

"For the love of money is the root of all evil: which while some coveted after, they have erred from the faith, and pierced themselves through with many sorrows." 1 Tim 6:10 KJV

 
From a recent study,

John 14:1 "Ye believe in God, believe also in me".

Both verbs, 'believe in God', and 'believe also in me' are the same. However, the verb has two different possible moods, indicative(fact) and imperative(command). There are then four translative possibilities in this verse, possibilities that are based on interpretation.

"You believe in God,(fact) you believe also in me"(fact)
"You believe in God,(fact) so then believe in me"(command)
"Believe in God(command),you already believe in me"(fact)
"Believe in God(command), believe in me"(command)

The KJV translators  translated the passage indicative/imperative, however the oldest interpretation along with the context of the passage goes with an imperative/imperative interpretation.
 
...and every time you see the word baptism. The unregenerate Anglicans refused to translate the word.
 
rsc2a said:
For the Lord thy God bringeth thee into a good land, a land of brooks of water, of fountains and depths that spring out of valleys and hills; A land of wheat, and barley, and vines, and fig trees, and pomegranates; a land of oil olive, and honey; A land wherein thou shalt eat bread without scarceness, thou shalt not lack any thing in it; a land whose stones are iron, and out of whose hills thou mayest dig brass. Deut 8:7-9 KJV


"Thou shalt not kill." Ex 20:13 KJV

"For the love of money is the root of all evil: which while some coveted after, they have erred from the faith, and pierced themselves through with many sorrows." 1 Tim 6:10 KJV
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You've listed 3 verses from the KJV with no explanation.  The idea of this thread is to list a KJV verse and tell what word or phrase you feel could be better translated.
 
Romans 7:8 But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was dead

But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of lusts. For without the law sin was dead

 
You don't mine brass. You mine copper.

Killing isn't necessarily wrong. Murder is.

The love of money is not the root of all evil. It is the root of all kinds of evils.
 
rsc2a said:
You don't mine brass. You mine copper.

Killing isn't necessarily wrong. Murder is.

The love of money is not the root of all evil. It is the root of all kinds of evils.
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And what translations got these right?
 
NASB, NIV, ESV, HSCB and many more
 
Exell said:
From a recent study,

John 14:1 "Ye believe in God, believe also in me".

Both verbs, 'believe in God', and 'believe also in me' are the same. However, the verb has two different possible moods, indicative(fact) and imperative(command). There are then four translative possibilities in this verse, possibilities that are based on interpretation.

"You believe in God,(fact) you believe also in me"(fact)
"You believe in God,(fact) so then believe in me"(command)
"Believe in God(command),you already believe in me"(fact)
"Believe in God(command), believe in me"(command)

The KJV translators  translated the passage indicative/imperative, however the oldest interpretation along with the context of the passage goes with an imperative/imperative interpretation.
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English speakers don't often think in such terms. Its good that you're studying the relation between command and imperative verb forms.
 
1Ti 3:13 For they that have used the office of a deacon well purchase to themselves a good degree, and great boldness in the faith which is in Christ Jesus.

The KJV is the only version that adds the words “the office of” without any support in the Greek.

Wyclife has “For thei that mynystren wel”

Tyndale has “For they that minister well”

Matthew has “For they that mynyster wel”

Coverdale has “For they that mynister well”

Great has “For they that mynister well”

Geneva has “For they that haue ministred well”

Rheims has “For they that have ministered well”

Bishop's has “For they that haue ministred well”

KJV 1611 has “For they that haue used the office of” in the margin they have “or, ministred”

NET Bible has “For those that have served well as deacons”

The KJV is the only version that uses the term “the office of”

My speculation is that this was done to give cover to the Anglican Church for their professional religious position of Deacon. They had Deacons, Priests, Bishops and Archbishop. This translation would let them make Deacons into religious professionals as they had priests and bishops, and lines up well with the Book of Common Prayer.

I think I can say that the KJV translators are the only ones that used the term “the office of”. No one before or after them used it.

They should have used what all the others before used, “For they that ministered well”

The only way the rules of translation allowed them to change it was if the Greek would be better translated with their new rendering, which it was not. Therefore the rendering was made for reasons other than making a  proper Bible translation. This may have been one of the edits that Bishop Bancroft is believed to have made.
 
I use only the KJV, but by definition, I am not KJVO. Try to explain that to the casual observer. When I run into words that could benefit by further explanation, I simply say something like, "The idea being conveyed is...."
 
Baptist City Holdout said:
I use only the KJV, but by definition, I am not KJVO. Try to explain that to the casual observer. When I run into words that could benefit by further explanation, I simply say something like, "The idea being conveyed is...."
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You stinkin' (I love that word) Bible corrector!!
 
Baptist City Holdout said:
Thanks for helping me boost my daily average.
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Keepin the main thing, the main thing!!
 
Not because the translation was wrong when translated but it means the exact opposite today:

2Th 2:7  For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way.

Would be better undertstood:
2Th 2:7  For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now restrains will restrain, until he be taken out of the way.

A very important verse for eschatology.
 
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