I know these questions have been asked before, but in light of all the thread hijacking, they deserve to be asked again.
1. Prior to 1611, what was the perfect, preserved, inspired word of God?
2. If it was perfect, preserved, & inspired prior to 1611, why is it not still?
3. If it is still, and it differs from the KJV, how can two things that are different be the same?
4. If it was perfect, why the need for the KJV?
Answers not directing us to go watch a video preferred.
1. Prior to 1611, what was the perfect, preserved, inspired word of God?
2. If it was perfect, preserved, & inspired prior to 1611, why is it not still?
3. If it is still, and it differs from the KJV, how can two things that are different be the same?
4. If it was perfect, why the need for the KJV?
Answers not directing us to go watch a video preferred.