Why is the word charity in some of our English Bibles?

bgwilkinson

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Why is the word charity in some of our English Bibles?

On another thread someone mentioned a sermon by a rabid KJVO religious speaker where he pontificated on the word charity that is in some of our English bible translations.

I started to do a little due diligence on this, and this is a bit of what I found.

In the early 1500s translators rendered agape as love.

Tyndale NT uses love. 1525

Coverdale uses love.  1535

Matthew's has love.  1537

Great Bible has love.  1541

Matthew-Tyndale has love. 1549

Geneva NT has love. 1557 

Bishop's has love.  1568

Rheims NT has charity. 1582

Geneva has love.  1583

KJV has charity.  1611

It is evident from the evidence that the KJV1611 imported the charity reading directly from the Rheims 1582 NT, which the translators would have had in the Fulke diglot.

https://archive.org/details/FulkeNewTestamentConfutation1589

This would make the KJV1611 a Bible that was heavily influenced by the High-Church faction of the Church of England including the head guy Richard Bancroft.

I wonder if the KJVOs know that they have a High-Church Catholic Bible?

Most modern versions have corrected this error brought on by the Latin loving Catholics.

Even the New American Catholic Bible corrects this poor translation.
 
bgwilkinson said:
I wonder if the KJVOs know that they have a High-Church Catholic Bible?

Holy moley!!  The KJV is a Catholic perversion!
 
bgwilkinson said:
It is evident from the evidence that the KJV1611 imported the charity reading directly from the Rheims 1582 NT, which the translators would have had in the Fulke diglot.

Bibleburner told us that Vatican Bibles are satanic.

I didn't realize he meant the KJV, too.
 
bgwilkinson said:
Why is the word charity in some of our English Bibles?


Bishop's has love.  1568

Rheims NT has charity. 1582

Geneva has love.  1583

KJV has charity.  1611

It is evident from the evidence that the KJV1611 imported the charity reading directly from the Rheims 1582 NT, which the translators would have had in the Fulke diglot.

The makers of the KJV did borrow or take a number of renderings from the 1582 Roman Catholic Rheims New Testament.  While the 1582 Rheims would be a possible source for "charity" in the KJV, there is another source.

While the 1568 edition of the Bishops' Bible had "love," the 1602 edition of the Bishops' Bible which was the actual one given to the makers of the KJV to follow had "charity."  The 1582 Rheims had "charity" more times than the KJV used it, but the 1602 edition of the Bishops' Bible used "charity" in all the same verses where the 1611 KJV has it.

Ronald Bridges wrote:  "The advocates of Catholic Latinity had in some way gathered strength, for in the second edition of the Bishops' Bible, published in that year [1572], the word 'charity' is substituted for 'love' in 32 cases" (KJB Word Book, p. 208).

E. H. Robertson observed that "the Bishops' Bible used the word 'charity' under the influence of the Latin Vulgate" (New Translations, p. 22).  MacGregor confirmed that it was the Vulgate’s use of charitas that suggested “charity” (Literary History, p. 114).  John Beard asserted that “the ecclesiastical word ‘charity’ from the charitas of the Latin Vulgate is preferred by King James’s divines to the Saxon word ‘love,‘ which they found in Tyndale’s version as well as in the Bible of Cramner and of Geneva” (Revised English Bible, p. 79). 

In its chapter contents heading at Deuteronomy 33, the 1611 KJV has this for verse 19:  “Of Charity.”  Its heading at Ecclesiastes chapter 11 beginning with the first verse is “Directions for charity.”  The heading for verse 1 of Hebrews 13 in the 1611 is “Divers admonitions, as to Charity.”  The headings for Acts chapter 4 end with the words “with mutual love and charity.”   
 
Boy those Catlicks have gotten their hooks into everything!  :eek:

Even the KJB (AV) has Jesuit influence flowing through it's Vatican approved text!
 
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