FSSL said:
praise_yeshua said:
Irenaeus witnessed a Greek variant in the 2nd century. Early Latin texts contain 616. Its not something new. The "new" early witness in "115" revived the debate and added a early manuscript witness to the collection of evidence.
So, we now have, three mss with 616. As Wallace, himself said, the issue has
"fairly benign implications."
You didn't even read the article..... and its more than three mss.
Here, I'll highlight what you missed.
Actually, the verdict is not in on this one yet. I am inclined to the view that the original wording here was 616, but a lot of work is needed to determine this
You might notice the article you linked is rather old. He has written other articles since and done interviews on the subject.
Irenaeus devotes an entire chapter to a discussion of the variant in Rev 13:18 (AH 5.30). He does not speak of the original text, however, but does address the earliest copies that he had seen. He compares the two readings, 616 and 666, and gives the palm to 666. However, since he also gives it a spiritual interpretation, one has to wonder whether his motives clouded his judgment and whether the church, under his spell, began to copy out 666 here instead of 616. Until just a few years ago, the only known manuscript to have 616 in Rev 13:18 was Ephraemi Rescriptus (codex C), a fifth century codex and the second most important manuscript of the Apocalypse. Then, with the discovery of sixteen or seventeen NT papyri at the Ashmolean Museum of Oxford University just a few years ago, confirmation of this reading appeared. The earliest manuscript on Rev 13, now P115 from the third or perhaps fourth century, also has the reading 616. I looked at the papyrus in 2003 while visiting Oxford, examining it under a microscope. Clearly, it had the reading 616 in the original hand?no erasures, no alterations. Nevertheless, back to Irenaeus: It is a curious thing that he doesn?t appeal to the original text of Revelation, which would end all dispute. He only appeals to early copies. Perhaps the reason is simply his distance from the source. By comparing what he says with what Tertullian says, access to the original church(es) seems to have been considered crucial for verification of the original wording. Hence, the reason Irenaeus only speaks of the copies may well be due to his geographical location. But if Irenaeus was speaking in absolute terms, then the original draft of the Apocalypse had disappeared. If so, this certainly puts some doubt on Tertullian?s statement about some of the letters of Paul still existing. One other item that may be important here: Revelation was copied less often than any other book of the NT, and yet Irenaeus admits that it was already corrupted?within just a few decades of the writing of the Apocalypse. Scribal corruption is to be expected, of course, but that Irenaeus? best argument is to appeal to early manuscripts rather than to the original?even if he had not seen the original?might suggest that it no longer existed. And if Revelation no longer existed, how much more likely is it that Paul?s letters no longer existed by the middle of the second century?
He's realized that the issue has further reaching affect than they initially considered.
Failed again....