sword said:
Jim Jones said:
Smelling says,
So here is your chance to show me the "doctrine of Christ" in His recorded testimony through the Gospels. Please include not only the salvific nature of atonement, but also why we should allow oppression to anybody who happens to disagree with the heterosexual lifestyle.
The 'doctrine of Christ ' can't be limited to the just the gospels.
Your flawed premise would allow all deviant behavior.
2 Timothy 3:16-17
16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
17 That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.
OK. Please show me from the Scriptures themselves that "all scripture" is equivalent to the 66 book canon we now have. What "scripture" did Paul have in mind when he wrote those words, considering much hadn't been penned yet? Was he giving Timothy an impossible doctrine to follow because "scripture" had not yet been completed?
That argument aside, the word "is" was put in by the KJV translators and not in the original text. (The word "is" is in italics in the KJV, indicating an addition for perceived clarity by the translators.) So the passage should read, "All scripture given by God, profitable for doctrine, reproof, etc." So the meaning of Paul's statement would be if there is a part of scripture that is given by God which is "God-breathed", that means the portions of scripture that are not given by God and not "God-breathed". ASV 1901 translates it this way: "Every scripture inspired of God is also profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for instruction which is in righteousness."
Stanford Rives, in a now defunct web link which I had saved, put it like this, in case you would like to pursue further study of Paul's passage:
[quoteI]n Greek, ambiguity can arise in discussing the old canon. For example, if one wished to refer to the Ketuvim, meaning "Writings," there were two Greek words that interchangeably meant "Writings" or our English synonym, "Scripture" -- the words graphe and grammata. At the same time, if one wished to refer to the entire OT canon, including the Ketuvim, one could still refer to it in Greek as "writings," either graphe or grammata.
Only by context could one infer whether the intent was to identify solely the Writings/Scripture section (Ketuvim) or speak about all the writings/scripture, i.e., the Torah, the Prophets and the Ketuvim/Writings.
Paul refers in 2 Tim. 3:15 to the Holy "grammata," translated as "Writings," but Paul obviously intended by calling them "Holy" to refer to the Law and Prophets.
Then in the very next verse, Paul speaks more broadly about the "graphe" which was likewise translated into English as "writings." As we shall see, Paul meant by "graphe" here - rendered as "Scripture" -- to include the entire Torah, Prophets and Writings/Ketuvim. Cfr. reference to just Torah and Prophets was "Holy Writings" (Greek, grammata) (Rom. 1:2; 2 Tim. 3:15). Cf. Jesus' usage of graphe in Matt. 21:24-23; 22:29-32.
This is because Paul's manner of expression implied that some Scripture / graphe is not always inspired, and thus graphe's use in 2 Tim. 3:16 must have been inclusive of the Ketuvim section unlike 3:15 where grammata meant to identify just the 100% 'holy' or 'inspired' books of Torah and Prophets. Upon becoming a Christian, Paul must have given up the Pharisaical view that the Ketuvim section too was entirely inspired, but after becoming a Christian Paul adopted Jesus' view that the "Law and the Prophets" are what have a 100% validity that will never expire. (Matt. 5:17.)
To realize this, we must observe that one of the most often mistranslated verses in the NT canon is 2 Tim. 3:16. The mistranslation gives an exaggerated sense of what the term "Scripture" (Writings/graphe) distinct from "Holy Writings" (2 Tim. 3:15, grammata) meant in Paul's usage. The way 2 Tim. 3:16 typically reads is: "All Scripture [is] given by inspiration of God, and is profitable."
