Random thought this morning:
Reviewing Mark 10:21 in a message last night it struck me that Jesus Christ clearly loved at least one of the non-elect--"Then Jesus beholding him loved him..."--as this man was clearly lost and remained in that state.
It also occurred to me that God/Jesus Christ absolutely and unconditionally proves His love in a very specific way. Scripture unconditionally states that the proof of love is "in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us."
Would one have to presume that this particular sinner would have to be one of those who, as a clearly identified recipient of God's love, is also a beneficiary of His sacrifice?
Reviewing Mark 10:21 in a message last night it struck me that Jesus Christ clearly loved at least one of the non-elect--"Then Jesus beholding him loved him..."--as this man was clearly lost and remained in that state.
It also occurred to me that God/Jesus Christ absolutely and unconditionally proves His love in a very specific way. Scripture unconditionally states that the proof of love is "in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us."
Would one have to presume that this particular sinner would have to be one of those who, as a clearly identified recipient of God's love, is also a beneficiary of His sacrifice?