The KJV is a Roman Catholic Bible with respect to the Word Church.

logos1560 said:
    In his 1593 book advocating that prelatic or Episcopal church government is apostolic, Bishop Thomas Bilson, who would be co-editor of the 1611 KJV, acknowledged that some use 1 Corinthians 12:28 as one verse that they cite for Presbyterian church government.  Bilson wrote:  “There remained yet one place where governors are named amongst ecclesiastical officers, and that is 1 Corinthians 12” (Perpetual Government, p. 197).  Bilson wrote:  “Why should they not be lay elders or judges of manners?  Because I find no such any where else mentioned, and here none proved.  Governors there were, or rather governments” (p. 199).  Bilson claimed that “Chrysostom maketh ‘helps’ and governments’ all one” (p. 212).  In 1641, George Gillespie maintained that “Chrysostom, expounding this place, doth not take helps and governments to be all one, as Bilson hath boldly, but falsely averred” (Assertion of the Government of the Church of Scotland, p. 19).  The 1611 edition of the KJV does exactly what Bilson suggested by connecting the words “helps” and “governments” with “in.” 

Talk about conspiracy theories. You are now suggesting that a typographical error in the first 1611 Edition, that was corrected very early on, was supposedly part of some plot to foist prelatical ecclesiology or something? Your conspiratorial view doesn't stand up to historical scrutiny: divine providence shows Congregationalists, Presbyterians and Anglicans all using the KJB for centuries. Going to the KJB first is the way to resolve proper of Church governance.

Anyway, soon I am sure you will be quoting those folks who said that Oliver Cromwell changed [Acts 6:3 for the same reasons]. After all, that does fit with your actual axiom: whoever says something against the KJB must be regarded, and, the perfection of the KJB must be maligned at all costs. Maybe you also believe that something is fact as long as it has been published.
 
FSSL said:
We point out a problem with the KJV and he doesn't defend it

I don't defend problems in the KJB, because there are none.

FSSL said:
If words are going to be added to the text, at least make sure they don't skew the meaning!

No words are added to the KJB, as it is sense for sense exactly what the originals communicated, which is to say, that it is God's Word in English, every word, without any wrong meaning. So, of course no meanings are added or taken away from the KJB.
 
bibleprotector said:
No words are added to the KJB, as it is sense for sense exactly what the originals communicated, which is to say, that it is God's Word in English, every word, without any wrong meaning. So, of course no meanings are added or taken away from the KJB.

Then please explain how "unknown" is the exact sense meant by the original word glossa.
 
John 10:28
And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.
The word "MAN" is in italics in the King James. Would it be more meaningful if "MAN" was left out and the verse would say that "Neither shall ANY pluck them out of my hand." Which could mean the devil, demons, or anything, not just man.
 
Just Ben said:
John 10:28
And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.
The word "MAN" is in italics in the King James. Would it be more meaningful if "MAN" was left out and the verse would say that "Neither shall ANY pluck them out of my hand." Which could mean the devil, demons, or anything, not just man.

A good number of editions of the KJV did not have "man" at John 10:28 while some have it not in italics.

John 10:28 [any--1560 Geneva; any man--1568 & 1602 Bishops]
any (1679, 1709, 1715, 1728, 1729, 1747, 1754, 1755, 1758, 1762, 1765, 1768, 1770, 1771, 1772, 1773, 1774, 1777, 1778, 1783 Oxford) [1638, 1683, 1743, 1747, 1760, 1761, 1762, 1763B, 1765, 1767, 1768, 1769 Cambridge] {1684, 1706, 1711, 1735, 1743, 1747, 1750, 1759, 1760, 1763, 1764, 1767, 1795, 1853, 1879 London} (1755 Oxon) (1715, 1722, 1756, 1764, 1766, 1769, 1810, 1820, 1827, 1858 Edinburgh) (1866 Glasgow) (1762 Dublin) (1700 MP) (1746 Leipzig) (1770 Dodd) (1774 Fortescu) (1776 Pasham) (1782 Aitken) (1790 MH) (1791 Collins) (1801 Hopkins) (1807, 1813 Johnson) (1809, 1810, 1818 Boston) (1818, 1819, 1829, 1843, 1851 ABS) (1831 Brown) (1832, 1835 Scott) (1836 Stebbing) (1846 Portland) (1845, 1876 Harding) (1848 Hartford) (1876 Porter) (1910 Collins) (1924, 1958 Hertel) (1833 WEB) (1851 Cone)
any man (1928 Oxford) [1648, 2005, 2011 Cambridge] {1611, 1613, 1614, 1616, 1617, 1631, 1640 London} (1843 AFBS) (2003, 2011, 2012 Barbour) (2003 IGC) (EB) (KJVJB) (2006 PENG) (2011 AMP) (2011 PJB) (NCE)
any man (1675, 1769 Oxford, SRB) [1629 Cambridge, DKJB]
 
bibleprotector said:
logos1560 said:
    In his 1593 book advocating that prelatic or Episcopal church government is apostolic, Bishop Thomas Bilson, who would be co-editor of the 1611 KJV, acknowledged that some use 1 Corinthians 12:28 as one verse that they cite for Presbyterian church government.  Bilson wrote:  “There remained yet one place where governors are named amongst ecclesiastical officers, and that is 1 Corinthians 12” (Perpetual Government, p. 197).  Bilson wrote:  “Why should they not be lay elders or judges of manners?  Because I find no such any where else mentioned, and here none proved.  Governors there were, or rather governments” (p. 199).  Bilson claimed that “Chrysostom maketh ‘helps’ and governments’ all one” (p. 212).  In 1641, George Gillespie maintained that “Chrysostom, expounding this place, doth not take helps and governments to be all one, as Bilson hath boldly, but falsely averred” (Assertion of the Government of the Church of Scotland, p. 19).  The 1611 edition of the KJV does exactly what Bilson suggested by connecting the words “helps” and “governments” with “in.”  

Talk about conspiracy theories. You are now suggesting that a typographical error in the first 1611 Edition, that was corrected very early on, was supposedly part of some plot to foist prelatical ecclesiology or something? 

You ignore the sound, historical evidence, including from a first-hand source, Thomas Bilson, co-editor of the 1611.  You provide no sound evidence that proves that it is supposedly a "typographical" error in the 1611 edition.  Concerning the 1611's rendering at 1 Corinthians 12:28, David Norton asserted:  "In the absence of clear evidence to the contrary, one must take the 1611 text as deliberate" (Textual History of the KJB, p. 34).

The king's printer in London who had available the text prepared by the makers of the KJV themselves to use to correct any printing errors introduced in the 1611 edition did not correct it for the first twenty years when the translators' text may have been used to correct some actual printer's errors, and no KJV translators themselves evidently pointed it out to the king's printers as being a printer's error that needed correcting.  It was later changed at Cambridge where a number of 1611 renderings, that were not printing errors, were changed to renderings that matched or agreed with those in the Geneva Bible.

1 Corinthians 12:28 [helpers, governours--1560 Geneva]
helps in governments [1817, 2005, 2011 Cambridge] {1611, 1613, 1614, 1616, 1617, 1631 London} (1816 Albany) (1816 Collins) (1828 Holbrook) (1827 Smith) (1854 Harding) (2006 PENG)
helps, governments (1769 Oxford, SRB) [1629, 1769 Cambridge, DKJB]

Benjamin Hanbury quoted the following from the preface to the reader in the Just Defence of the Petition for Reformation that was printed in 1618:  “1 Corinthians 12:28 is translated, both by the Genevan and former Church translation [Bishops’] ‘helpers, governors,‘ but the new translators, herein worse than the Rhemists, translate it ‘helps in governments;‘ foisting into the text this preposition ‘in.‘  Why?  They cannot abide elders to assist the minister in governing Christ’s Church.  So their churchwardens are but the prelates’ promoters” (Historical Memorials, I, p. 131).  In his exposition of Ezekiel, William Greenhill (1598-1671) asserted that 1 Corinthians 12:28 “is faulty in this place, reading those words thus, ‘helps in government,‘ which was done to countenance all the assistants prelates had in their government” (p. 551).  In his 1648 sermon, Thomas Hill maintained that helps in governments “is a most horrible prodigious violence to the Greek words; for they are both the accusative case, helps; there are elders; governments, there are deacons; now to obscure these, you must put it, helps in governments” (Six Sermons, p. 25). 


bibleprotector said:
Your conspiratorial view doesn't stand up to historical scrutiny: divine providence shows Congregationalists, Presbyterians and Anglicans all using the KJB for centuries. Going to the KJB first is the way to resolve proper of Church governance.

Separtists, Presbyterians, Congregationalists, and Baptists already had their distinctive views of church government before the KJV was made, which would indicate that the KJV was not the actual source of their views.  You do not provide any sound evidence that demonstrates that the KJV is supposedly the source of congregational church government views or presbyterian church government views, which already existed before the KJV was made.  The fact that later Presbyterians or Baptists may have tried to find some support for their already existing views in the KJV does not suggest what you claimed.

    A Confession of Faith by a group of Separatists in 1596 maintained in Article 23 “that as every Christian congregation hath power and commandment to elect and ordain their own ministry according to the rules prescribed” and the verses cited were Acts 6:3, 5, 6 and Acts 14:23 (Lumpkin, Baptist Confessions, p. 89).  In a 1611 Confession of Faith thought to have been written by Thomas Helwys, Article 21 noted “that these Officers are to be chosen when there are persons qualified according to the rules in Christ’s Testament (1 Timothy 3:2-7, Titus 1:6-9, Acts 6:3-4) by election and approbation of that church or congregation whereof they are members (Acts 6:3-4 and 14:23) (Lumpkin, p. 122).  The 1677 Second London Confession of Faith by Baptists maintained that a bishop or elder is “to be chosen thereunto by the common suffrage of the Church itself,” and it cited Acts 14:23 in the margin with the comment “See the original” (Lumpkin, p. 287; McGlothin, Baptist Confessions, p. 266).  The 1742 Philadelphia Confession of Faith by Baptists retained the same words that had been based on Acts 14:23:  “to be chosen thereunto by the common suffrage of the church itself” (Cathcart, Baptist Encyclopaedia, p. 1320). 

Baptists in England in the 1600’s had based at least a portion of their doctrine of church government on the original language text at Acts 14:23 with clear support from the Latin translation of Erasmus, the Latin translation of Beza, and the pre-1611 English Bibles.  Did the KJV in effect remove part of the scriptural support for this aspect of the Baptist doctrine of church government?

In his Annotations, John Diodoti translated his own Italian Bible into English at Acts 14:23 as “when they had by common votes ordained.”  James Harrington rendered Diodati’s Bible as “When they had ordained them in every church by the common votes” (Prerogative, Two, p. 78).  James Corcoran translated Diodati’s rendering as “ordained elders for them by general suffrage” (American Catholic Quarterly Review, 1880, Vol. 5, p. 710).  Riplinger maintained that “the Italian Diodati” was a “pure” edition of the Bible (Hazardous, p. 646).  The Dutch Annotations as translated into English by Theodore Haak in 1657 presented the first part of the text of Acts 14:23 as follows:  "And when they in every church with lifting up of hands had chosen them elders."  In 1657, Harrington translated the words in the Dutch Bible appointed by the Synod of Dort as “When in each church by the holding up of hands they had elected presbyters” (Prerogative, Two, p. 78).  In an article in The Baptist Magazine for 1871, the author or editor W. G. Lewis asserted that they translated literally the 1637 Dutch Version at Acts 14:23 as follows:  “And when they had chosen elders for them in every congregation with uplifted hands” (p. 584).  Edwin Hall wrote that “the ancient French version reads, ‘And after having by common suffrages ordained elders’” (Puritans, p. 305).  Francis Turretin maintained that our French version of the Scriptures “understands cheirotonian of a creation by votes or election” (Institutes, III, p. 229).  Perhaps that French version was the revision of Robert Oliventanus’ version that was made by Theodore Beza.  Henry Baird noted that “Beza found time to give a careful and final revision to the French version of the Bible in common use among Protestants” (Theodore Beza, p. 330).  Baird wrote:  “Thus was developed the famous ’Bible of the Pastors and Professors of Geneva,’ which, from 1588 on to almost our own times, has passed through a multitude of editions and exercised a vast influence on successive generations of readers” (Ibid.).  Harrington presented the rendering of the Swiss Bible of Zurich as follows: “When they had created them elders by suffrages in every congregation” (Prerogative, Two, p. 77).  Along with the Latin New Testaments of Erasmus and Beza, the Italian, Dutch, French, and Swiss Bibles agreed with the pre-1611 English Bibles at Acts 14:23. 
 
KJV-only author Doug Stauffer acknowledged that the ministers of the Church of England in 1600 “incorporated an unscriptural Episcopal form of church polity, along with unscriptural views on baptism” (One Book One Authority, p. 462).  In an article entitled “Short History of the English Bible,“ it is asserted that the Bishops’ Bible had “a tendency to use the hierarchical terminology of the Anglican Church” (Unpublished Word, Spring, 2009, p. 11).  This article also stated:  “The [KJV] translators preserved the ecclesiastical terms largely because King James and the Anglican Bishops had strictly charged the translators to preserve the ecclesiastical terms of the Bishops’ Bible” (Ibid.).  Charles Pastoor and Galen Johnson maintained that King James I in effect directed “that the translation adopt language supportive of episcopacy” (Historical Dictionary, p. 174).  John Beard asserted that “the intense Episcopalianism of the Bishops’ Bible was transfused into that of James” (Revised English Bible, p. 102).  In his history of the making of the KJV, Adam Nicolson referred to the KJV as “a ferociously episcopal” Bible (God’s Secretaries, p. 60).  Was that hierarchical ecclesiastical terminology kept or even increased in the KJV which was officially a revision of the Bishops‘ Bible? 

Henry Jessey, a Baptist Bible scholar and pastor in the 1600's, complained about the KJV for its episcopacy and said that a prelate or bishop "who was supervisor of the present translation, altered it in fourteen places to make it speak the language of prelacy"  (Williams, Common English Version, p. 53).

James Reid referred to the KJV as “too partial to prelacy” (History of the Presbyterian Church, I, p. 239, note 24).  Concerning several verses in the KJV, Andrew Edgar asserted that “prelacy” obtained “a show of countenance which is scarcely warranted” (Bibles of England, p. 294).  Edgar noted that some say “the theological and ecclesiastical bias of the translators betrays itself in the authorized version” (p. 294).  In his 1659 book, Robert Gell, who had been chaplain of KJV translator George Abbot, maintained that “dogmatic interests were in some cases allowed to bias the translation,” and one of those dogmatic interests he referred to as “the prelatic view” (Essay).  The fact that a person with a position in the Church of England and with a firsthand association with a KJV translator acknowledged or affirmed the bias is strong evidence.  John Lewis asserted that Robert Gell “reflected on this new translation as wrested and partial, and speaking the language of and giving authority to one sect” (Complete History, p. 333).  Thomas Smyth referred to the KJV translators as “prelatists” and contended that they “took every occasion to make the original speak the language of prelacy” (Presbytery and not Prelacy, p. 257).  Smyth noted that the KJV “was translated and arranged under prelatic direction” (p. 273).  W. D. Killen indicated that “the prelatic leanings of our English interpreters” appear in their translating (Framework of the Church, p 147).  James R. White asserted: “Anglican ecclesiology had an impact upon the KJV’s translation, a charge that has been made ever since the translation appeared” (King James Only, p. 72).  Allister McGrath noted that “one Parliamentary group, meeting in 1652-53, argued that the King James Bible used ‘prelatic language’” (In the Beginning, p. 286).  In 1645 in the sessions of the Westminster Assembly, Scottish reformer George Gillespie moved to alter “some places in the [KJV] New Testament that prelatic men make use of” (Mitchell, Minutes, p. 181).  This is firsthand evidence that prelates made use of certain renderings in the KJV as favorable to their views. 

    Henry Dexter maintained that “its [KJV’s] translators acted under Episcopal bias, and is some passages modified earlier and more exact versions in its interest” (Hand-Book, p. 15).  William Carpenter asserted:  “In some cases, the translation has been influenced either by the desire of the translators to conform it to their royal master’s prejudices in favour of episcopacy, or, which is equally probable, to render it accordant with their own sentiments on this subject” (Guide to Practical Reading of the Bible, pp. 58-59).  Samuel Cox acknowledged that some renderings in the KJV “have been attributed to ecclesiastical bias” (Expositor, III, p. 301).  Edward Jacob Drinkhouse referred to “the Episcopal bias” of the King James translators (History of Methodist Reform, p. 260).  Benjamin Hanbury contended that certain renderings in the KJV makes it “sectarian and the symbol of a party” (Historical Memorials, footnote pp. 1-2).  Silas Shepard maintained that the KJV “is decidedly sectarian” (British Millennial Harbinger, Vol. VIII, p. 74).  In the general preface to his New Literal Translation, James Macknight claimed that “their translation is partial, speaking the language of, and giving authority to one sect” (p. 9).  James Edmunds and T. S. Bell asserted that “King James’s servitors warped the Word of God to suit their employer or to suit their theological notions” (Discussion on Revision, p. 113).  Edmunds and Bell refer to the KJV as “that sectarian version” (p. 119).  Derek Wilson maintained that the translation by Bancroft’s team “had to circumvent any interpretation that might tend towards separatism” (People’s Book, p. 119).  R. S. Sugirtharajah asserted that the KJV was seen as “episcopal” (Hamlin, KJB after 400, p. 160).  John Beard contended: “Our present Bible wears a courtly dress, and utters the Church-of-Englandism of the day” (Revised English Bible, pp. 146-147).  Ross Purdy wrote:  “There is an Episcopalian bias in the King James Bible” (I Will Have One Doctrine, p. 46).  Purdy asserted:  “the Anglican bias is still discernible” (p. 15).  Purdy referred to “examples of obvious Anglican and authoritative bias” that promote “prelacy” (p. 57).  In the Preface to the Reader in the 2014 Modern English Bible [a translation of the Textus Receptus and the Jacob ben Hayyim edition of the Masoretic Text], it is maintained that according to the instructions given its translators the KJV “would conform to the ecclesiology of the Church of England” and that “the new translation would reflect the episcopal structure of the Church of England and traditional beliefs about ordained clergy” (pp. ix-x).  KJV-only author Robert Sargent even acknowledged that the Puritans considered certain words or renderings to favor “Episcopalian polity” (English Bible, p. 230). In his 1671 book, Edward Whiston wrote:  “Mention might be made of some unhandsome dealing, not in the translators, but in a great prelate of that time, the chief supervisor of the work, who, as the Reverend Doctor Hill declared in a great and honourable Assembly, would have it speak the prelatical language, and to that end altered it in 14 places” (Life and Death of Henry Jessey, p. 49). 
 
FSSL said:
bibleprotector said:
No words are added to the KJB, as it is sense for sense exactly what the originals communicated, which is to say, that it is God's Word in English, every word, without any wrong meaning. So, of course no meanings are added or taken away from the KJB.

Then please explain how "unknown" is the exact sense meant by the original word glossa.

The KJB is an exact translation, therefore what is given in English is the exact translation of that verse, sense for sense.
 
logos1560 said:
A good number of editions of the KJV did not have "man" at John 10:28 while some have it not in italics.

This reveals the true motives behind the attack on specific words in the KJB, i.e. doctrinal. Same with the unknown tongues.
 
logos1560 said:
You provide no sound evidence that proves that it is supposedly a "typographical" error in the 1611 edition.

That's right, I provide no evidence of any such thing being "supposed", because it is. And of course, all the evidence that is, you reject by your standard of what you want to hold as "sound".

Further it is playing politics to say I did not supply evidence, because it is already obvious that it is a typographical error on various grounds:

1. The fact that the 1611 edition contained typographical errors.
2. The fact that this was altered early in the printing history of the KJB.
3. The fact that preceding English Bibles separated "helpers, governors" (i.e. helps, governments).
4. John Bois' notes only relate to the forms (as in point 3), and do not support Norton's reasoning, i.e. that Bois mentioned the verse does not mean that there was a deliberate insertion of the word "in" being made.
 
logos1560 said:
Ross Purdy wrote:  “There is an Episcopalian bias in the King James Bible” (I Will Have One Doctrine, p. 46).

This is one of your pals, who wrote that in 2007. This supports my analysis of your approach. You may as well as have quoted yourself saying the same thing. It appears that your "sound evidence" really means your "implacable opinion".
 
bibleprotector said:
The KJB is an exact translation, therefore what is given in English is the exact translation of that verse, sense for sense.

You can check a lexicon to see that unknown is not a part of glossa's semantic range.

Repeating your mantra will not change the facts.
 
FSSL said:
bibleprotector said:
The KJB is an exact translation, therefore what is given in English is the exact translation of that verse, sense for sense.

You can check a lexicon to see that unknown is not a part of glossa's semantic range.

Repeating your mantra will not change the facts.

By a lexicon, you mean, some modernist's limited understanding and opinion of meaning ascribed to the Biblical words.

Unless you are going to tell us that some lexicon is infallible.
 
bibleprotector said:
By a lexicon, you mean, some modernist's limited understanding and opinion of meaning ascribed to the Biblical words.

Unless you are going to tell us that some lexicon is infallible.

Like Al Sharpton uses the word "racist," Bibleprotector relies on "modernist" to cover his ignorance.

There are ZERO mss that support the reading "unknown" and the word "glossa" never means unknown. And Bibleprotector calls US the "modernist!"

Defending this addition to Scripture is foolish.
 
FSSL said:
Like Al Sharpton uses the word "racist," Bibleprotector relies on "modernist" to cover his ignorance.

You are defining taking a faith-filled, anti-rationalist view as "ignorance". You think that a rationalist philosophy in theology is wise. It isn't.

FSSL said:
There are ZERO mss that support the reading "unknown" and the word "glossa" never means unknown.

This is a grave fallacy. The meaning of words, the very sense, is going to be by more English words than the compactness of the original language at this place.

Additionally, you seem to be implying that something is not true unless it is in a manuscript.

FSSL said:
And Bibleprotector calls US the "modernist!"

I think you are confused here, because the Reformation scholarship knew that the word unknown (or strange) was right at that place. It is the modernist who will give the opening to reject it: and those who have a doctrinal axe to grind will reject it accordingly.

Also, it is far spread as a teaching that the tongues were unknown, Qui enim loquitur lingua, scilicet auditoribus incognita, non hominibus loquitur ...

FSSL said:
Defending this addition to Scripture is foolish.

Taking away a word from the Scripture is foolish.
 
bibleprotector said:
This is a grave fallacy. The meaning of words, the very sense, is going to be by more English words than the compactness of the original language at this place.

I'm not caught in a fallacy. You are caught making this up. You don't know Greek. So why do you continue to tell us this gibberish?
 
bibleprotector said:
FSSL said:
You can check a lexicon to see that unknown is not a part of glossa's semantic range.

By a lexicon, you mean, some modernist's limited understanding and opinion of meaning ascribed to the Biblical words.

You make an emotionally charged, bogus accusation perhaps in order to avoid the truth.  Are you using the same incorrect reasoning that Gail Riplinger uses in her attacks on Hebrew-English and Greek-English lexicons?

The makers of the KJV consulted lexicons, including one made by a Roman Catholic Jesuit Santes Pagninus.

The makers of the KJV consulted the Hebrew-Latin and Greek-Latin lexicons of that day, which were said to use often the words of the Latin Vulgate as their definitions.  That was likely true of the Greek-Latin lexicon and Hebrew-Latin dictionary printed with the Roman Catholic Complutensian Polyglot.  In 1847, The Churchman’s Monthly Review maintained that “the Thesauraus of Santes Pagninus [1470-1541] was one of the earliest Hebrew Latin lexicons” (p. 129).  This source noted that Pagninus was “a Jesuit” and that his lexicon “contains the Latin Vulgate translation of every word in the Hebrew Bible” (Ibid.).  It also indicated that this lexicon by Pagninus was used by Protestants as well as by Roman Catholics.  Bishop Grindal is said to have had a copy of an edition of the Lexicon of Pagninus printed in 1577 that he left to the library at Queen’s College at Oxford.  David Norton observed that KJV translator Edward Lively had a copy of “Pagninus’s Thesaurus Lingue Sanctae” (KJB: Short History, p. 69).  Jones, Moore, and Reid noted that KJV translator “Henry Savile himself gave to the library a copy of Pagninus’s Thesaurus Linguae Sanctae” (Moore, Manifold Greatness, p. 96).  R. Cunningham Didham contended that the “Hebrew lexicons of those days rather perpetuated the errors of the Vulgate than the sense of the Hebrew” (New Translation of the Psalms, p. 7).  Didham added:  “Even the Lexicon of the celebrated Sebastian Munster was no more than that, as Wolf assures us, the Latin words of the Vulgate” (Ibid.).  Herbert Marsh noted:  “When Sebastian Munster composed his Dictionarium Hebraicum, he added to each Hebrew word the sense in Latin.  And whence did he derive those Latin senses?  From the Vulgate” (Lectures, p. 521).  Munster also compiled a Latin-Greek-Hebrew dictionary.  Henry Kiddle and Alexander Schem maintained that until the 1800’s “the Greek language was studied through the medium of the Latin, and there were no Greek-English, but only Greek-Latin lexicons” (Cyclopaedia, p. 224).  The KJV translators may have had the Greek Lexicon or Thesaurus of Henry Stephens and the Greek Lexicon of Robert Constantine (1502-1605).  Ward Allen pointed out how John Bois cited the lexicons of Hesychius and of Henry Stephens (Translating, p. 33). 

Gail Riplinger admitted:  “The few lexicons the KJB translators did use were generally in Latin, not English” (Hazardous Materials, p. 1187).  Would a consistent application of the reasoning in her book suggest that the KJV translators were wrong to use any lexicons that borrowed any definitions from a corrupt Bible translation--the Latin Vulgate of Jerome and any from secular pagan authors, unbelieving Jews, or Roman Catholic church fathers?  Are Riplinger and other KJV-only advocates implying that use of any lexicon with definitions from a corrupt translation such as the Roman Catholic Latin Vulgate of Jerome would have contaminated the KJV?   Likely lexicons today derived some of their materials from their predecessors used by the KJV translators.   
 
bibleprotector said:
logos1560 said:
Ross Purdy wrote:  “There is an Episcopalian bias in the King James Bible” (I Will Have One Doctrine, p. 46).

This is one of your pals, who wrote that in 2007. This supports my analysis of your approach. You may as well as have quoted yourself saying the same thing. It appears that your "sound evidence" really means your "implacable opinion".

I presented you with sound evidence that proves that believers from the 1600's until today saw and pointed out Episcopal bias in the KJV, which refuted your bogus accusations and KJV-only attempts to rewrite history.  You merely pick out one recent statement, ignoring the much earlier historical evidence, in order to try to misrepresent and distort the facts.

Readers of this forum can see that it is the incorrect claims for a modern KJV-only theory with its conspiratorial view of all other English Bibles that does not stand up to historical scrutiny.

bibleprotector said:
Your conspiratorial view doesn't stand up to historical scrutiny: divine providence shows Congregationalists, Presbyterians and Anglicans all using the KJB for centuries. Going to the KJB first is the way to resolve proper of Church governance.
 
FSSL said:
You don't know Greek. So why do you continue to tell us this gibberish?

It seems that you are implying that English is gibberish, and Greek is not.

1Co 14:11 Therefore if I know not the meaning of the voice, I shall be unto him that speaketh a barbarian, and he that speaketh shall be a barbarian unto me.
 
logos1560 said:
The makers of the KJV consulted lexicons, including one made by a Roman Catholic Jesuit Santes Pagninus.

There is a vast difference between historical (traditional) and modernistic understandings. Today's Jesuits would agree with your modernistic view, because today they are champions of modernism. The Vulgate editions of the 16th century were better than those of today for the same reason.
 
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