What is the Gospel?

In comes Dumb, whether he's drunk or on drugs I cannot tell.
We have noticed there are a lot of things you can't tell. For example, you can't tell us what Strong's definition of metanoia implies requires "reformation" after feeling guilt.

Indeed, you can't tell us, though I'm sure you'll try (as you have done previously) to make excuses for your idiotic and fact-free opinions.

Run away, little coward, run away!
 
:rolleyes: Godly sorrow in the context of that passage is talking about them feeling sorry because he REBUKED THE CRAP OUT OF THEM for a specific sin, and in order to overcome sin, you have to be sorry over them in a godly manner or God will not help you overcome them, because you'd be doing it in your own strength.

I have no idea what that is suppose to mean!!!

Godly Sorrow is a specific type of sorrow that God accepts/approves of. You know how I know, because Paul said that the sorrow of the world works death. Godly sorrow is Divine. It has its origin in God. It is impartation where God's attitude and feelings toward sin becomes one in the sinner.

Notice how he's talking to ALREADY SAVED PEOPLE in that passage. He is not telling ALREADY SAVED people to be sorry about their sins and turn from them to attain eternal life. CHRIST ALREADY PAID FOR THEIR SINS, and they were saved from hell by ACCEPTING his payment.

When we are "saved" we are "new born children". New born children don't often know what they're looking at exactly, nor what they hear exactly. It takes time and experience with Divine Impartation of Truth in our lives to become "full grown children" in the faith. Your division is nonsense. I'm still receiving Divine Things from God in my life.

You are essentially trying to use twisted interpretations of verses often not even talking about eternal salvation to ERASE or NULLIFY verses that actually are.

No. I'm trying to get a child to stop being a child and listen. Put off childish things. Accept the clear Truth when you receive it.
 
For example, what is it that the definition of metanoia in Strong's requires to be reformed after feeling guilt. Indeed, you can't tell us

Run away, little coward, run away!
What. Why is this 15 year old asking me a question and then telling me to run away (another one for the "UGC lies" thread: "UGC said I was 15! I'm not! I'm older I promise!"). Does being a Lordship Salvationists turn everything else in your life into a paradox, too?

I just answered this in posts 126 & 129.

What does metamelomai mean, Ransom?
 
Metanoia is a quick word to define.
Yes it is, and here is the definition according to Strong's, which according to you is "one of the oldest and most reliable" Greek dictionaries.
(subj.) compunction (for guilt, includ. reformation; by impl. reversal (of [another's] decision):--repentance.
OF course, all you were capable of doing was dropping Strong's name, without posting his definition.

Tell us what is being reformed in metanoia.

Put up or shut up.
 
I just answered this in posts 126 & 129.
Liar.

In #126 and #128, you bloviated about other words, and failed to address the definition of metanoia. Distraction and personal attacks are all you have. You're a liar, a fool, and a windbag.

What does metamelomai mean, Ransom?

It means you are incapable of giving straight answers to the questions you're asked, so you change the subject.

Answer my question, fool. What is being reformed in Strong's definition of metanoia?
 
I'm sure that Strong's, whether it be in different places or in different editions (there's the "New" and "Expanded" that screw things up), adjusted their definition.

We notice here that this listing of Strong's gives the simple, accurate Definition:
Screen Shot 2020-08-24 at 11.43.22 AM.png
Zoomed in for Dumb here:
Screen Shot 2020-08-24 at 11.48.58 AM.png


Of course, others will take the original definition and then morph and shift it into a new one after the fact, nevertheless will often define it correctly first:

Screen Shot 2020-08-24 at 11.44.33 AM.png
 
I'm sure that Strong's, whether it be in different places or in different editions (there's the "New" and the "Expanded" that screw things up), adjusted their definition.
LOL! Now rather than dealing with the one from "one of the oldest and most reliable" Greek dictionaries, the UGCoward is running off to yet another definition!

Here's the one you're too chicken to interact with:
(subj.) compunction (for guilt, includ. reformation; by impl. reversal (of [another's] decision):--repentance.
What is being reformed? Why can't you answer this question?
 
I'm sure that Strong's, whether it be in different places or in different editions (there's the "New" and the "Expanded" that screw things up), adjusted their definition.

We notice here that this listing of Strong's gives the simple, accurate Definition:
View attachment 1540
Zoomed in for Dumb here:
View attachment 1542


Of course, others will take the original definition and then morph and shift it into a new one after the fact, nevertheless will often define it correctly first:

View attachment 1541

Geesh..... The latter is just an elaboration upon the first. It was expounded.... upon...

All words have a beginning and change over time. From the simplest of notions to often complex constructs. Just an hint for you. Etymology is your friend. Not your enemy.
 
I have no idea what that is suppose to mean!!!
I just prayed for you to understand it.

Ransom... just... shut up, dude. You're only making yourself look foolish at this point. Go back and spend some time reading my posts.

What is being reformed?
It's not the definition of metanoia, that's for sure. Unless you say it's your MIND (not your life) being reformed to accept that you CAN'T reform your life to be saved.
 
Etymology is your friend. Not your enemy.
You gotta remember, UGC is ignorant of the use of a dictionary, and he thinks the etymology of a word is actually its definition.

Don't believe me? Look up the thread titled "Luciferase" for the insanity when he actually claims this.
 
I just prayed for you to understand it.

Ransom... just... shut up, dude. You're only making yourself look foolish at this point. Go back and spend some time reading my posts.


It's not the definition of metanoia, that's for sure. Unless you say it's your MIND (not your life) being reformed to accept that you CAN'T reform your life to be saved.

I appreciate the prayers but you should consider the obvious.
 
he thinks the etymology of a word is actually its definition.
No, the etymology of a word can give you the original definition of a word when the word stands alone, isolated by itself. When it's not yet placed in the context of a surrounding sentence.

You should probably understand this first, instead of doing it the other way around and negating the original etymology with your new definition created by conglomerating the definition of MULTIPLE words together via eisegesis.

THEN,
once you understand this, you can find the DEFINITION OF USE by reading the word IN CONTEXT of the surrounding sentence it's found in in scripture: NOTICE HOW NOWHERE DOES IT SAY YOU HAVE TO CHANGE YOUR MIND TOWARD A REFORMED LIFE WITHOUT SIN FOR SALVATION, NOR ANYTHING CLOSE.
 
Also it should be noted that in this case, the etymology is not SEPARATE from the original definition.

Any "Bible" definition that changed that original definition AFTER the fact is NEW: Notice how FSSL tried to argue that the ORIGINAL definition was "secular", but that later men's theologies came along and CHANGED that original use of the word.

Hey geniuses: before the NT was written, the Greek language already existed, and when they were using it in common, everyday language,
THEY WERE NOT TELLING EACH OTHER TO TURN FROM SINS, THEY WERE SAYING "CHANGE YOUR MIND" ABOUT THIS, OR "CHANGE YOUR MIND" ABOUT THAT. DUH.
 
No, the etymology of a word can give you the original definition of a word when the word stands alone, isolated by itself. When it's not yet placed in the context of a surrounding sentence.

Really? No. It can give you important information relative to a "point in time" understand of how it was used for a certain people/culture. Which is good for the KJVOist to consider.

Your extension of its use is completely ridiculous.

You should probably understand this first, instead of doing it the other way around and negating the original etymology with your new definition created by conglomerating the definition of MULTIPLE words together via eisegesis.

THEN,
once you understand this, you can find the DEFINITION OF USE by reading the word IN CONTEXT of the surrounding sentence it's found in in scripture: NOTICE HOW NOWHERE DOES IT SAY YOU HAVE TO CHANGE YOUR MIND TOWARD A REFORMED LIFE WITHOUT SIN FOR SALVATION, NOR ANYTHING CLOSE.

To say it doesn't mean "a change of mind" Is ridiculous. You've fabricated your own silly construct to fight a bad teaching.....

Your problem is related to how you process information. You've become so accustomed to fabricating your own constructs, you have no idea how to proper defend the Truth. You just can't "make up" a your own definition. The information needed is external to you.
 
Really? No. It can give you important information relative to a "point in time" understand of how it was used for a certain people/culture.
You missed the post that followed and completed my point:

Also it should be noted that in this case, the etymology is not SEPARATE from the original definition.

Any "Bible" definition that changed that original definition AFTER the fact is NEW: Notice how FSSL tried to argue that the ORIGINAL definition was "secular", but that later men's theologies came along and CHANGED that original use of the word.

Hey geniuses: before the NT was written, the Greek language already existed, and when they were using it in common, everyday language, THEY WERE NOT TELLING EACH OTHER TO TURN FROM SINS, THEY WERE SAYING "CHANGE YOUR MIND" ABOUT THIS, OR "CHANGE YOUR MIND" ABOUT THAT. DUH.
 
To say it doesn't mean "a change of mind" Is ridiculous.
Here, let's try this.

Why don't you tell us exactly what you believe it means. This is fair: I spent enough time explaining my understanding of the definition, now let's hear yours and we'll perhaps follow it through to its inevitable conclusion with some Socratic questioning, then we'll all see which one stands cohesive in the end with both logic and scripture.
 
It's like these guys are arguing,


"God wanted to confuse everyone with a brand new definition of a word, by using it DIFFERENTLY from how every Greek used it up until then!".


Are you serious? Why wouldn't God just use a different word altogether instead of CHANGING the definition of a word JUST for his scriptures. That makes no sense at all! If God wanted to say, "Turn from your sins and reform your life" to get into heaven, he would have just said it. God is not going to confuse everyone by saying "change your mind", but that's not what I really mean, you better listen to the New Theologians who tell you the NEW definition of "change your mind".

No, seriously. This is essentially what you're arguing for: Labyrinths of delusion.
Occam's razor: the simplest solution is usually the best.
Don't unnecessarily overcomplicate things to high heaven just to fit your theology. That's twisting the word of God.

Think about where it's gotten you: you literally REJECT where God TOLD YOU to change your mind and say "that's ridiculous". You just called the plain word of God ridiculous! The stupidity!
 
No, the etymology of a word can give you the original definition of a word when the word stands alone, isolated by itself.
No word stands alone, isolated by yourself.

UGCrazy apparently doesn't think words need to have context. I guess he likes to stand on the street corner shouting "METANOIA!!!" without any sort of context, like a crazy person.
 
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