Who is the subject of the verb prepared in Romans 9:22?

When I looked into the mud puddle yesterday, I was your relatives floating around. Have a great day, Butthead... puss-bucket 'prophet' for profit.
This begs 2 questions:
1. Why were you in a mud puddle?
2. Are you still my relatives, or was that just yesterday?
 
This begs 2 questions:
1. Why were you in a mud puddle?
2. Are you still my relatives, or was that just yesterday?
Comprehension isn't your strong suit, is it?
 
And you need to go back and read your own quote.

when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful... (21)​

They knew God, but rejected him. They were already reprobate. All that stuff you bolded was the result.
"...but became..."
Progress.
" Became" calls you a liar, here, all by itself.
 
"Became" describes fundamental transformation, by default.
 
"Became" describes fundamental transformation, by default.
They became futile in their thinking, yes, and their hearts were darkened.

Why?

Because they did not honour God. They were already reprobate.

This isn't hard if you're not stupid.
 
They "became" because they were already reprobate.

Not sure how you think you can get away with that with the English language.​

become​

verb

be·come bi-ˈkəm
bē-

became bi-ˈkām
bē-
; become; becoming
Synonyms of become
intransitive verb
1
a
: to come into existence
b
: to come to be

So if became or become means to come into existence or to come to be you can't say they already were that before. How about we just leave words for what they mean? :)

 
So if became or become means to come into existence or to come to be you can't say they already were that before. How about we just leave words for what they mean? :)
The verse doesn't say they became "reprobate." How about you just leave words for what they mean? :)
 
They became futile in their thinking, yes, and their hearts were darkened.

Why?

Because they did not honour God. They were already reprobate.
They were not but I'm content to allow readers to decide that.

Rm 1:19 speaks about what God has shown the people of the world. It states because he has shown them these things they are without excuse. If they didn't have a capacity to respond in a good way from what God showed them the would be WITH EXCUSE.

This isn't hard if you're not stupid.
Any court of the land with scream at you to get out of the court by even suggesting that justice can work the way you think. That they can't do anything about something and never could and you still say they would be without excuse. Sorry Ransom but they might say to you something similar to what you said to the other poster...."How ................... Can You Get?" Of course I probably would not say that to you but they might. :)

And Rm 1:28 says he gave them over to a reprobate mind ONLY after they suppressed the truth over a period of time. There's no such thing as saying they were reprobate all the time. And you would say even from birth? Sorry but your way of thinking is not Bible based.
 
If they didn't have a capacity to respond in a good way from what God showed them the would be WITH EXCUSE.

What, in your opinion, is the reason that "although they knew God, they neither glorified him as God nor gave thanks to him." if not that they were in a state of enmity with God (i.e. reprobation)? Show your work.

Any court of the land with scream at you to get out of the court by even suggesting that justice can work the way you think.

That's Charles Finney talking, not the Bible. I'm concerned with what Scripture says, not a lawyer.
 
What, in your opinion, is the reason that "although they knew God, they neither glorified him as God nor gave thanks to him." if not that they were in a state of enmity with God (i.e. reprobation)? Show your work.
Being in a state of enmity doesn't mean the culture or cultures always were. Israel proved that even within a generation. And being without excuse means they had the capacity to repent OR they would have excuse. It's as simple as that.

And when Rm 1:21 says their imaginations BECAME vain and their foolish hearts were darkened that speaks obviously of a process where their hearts weren't darkened TO become such. Verse 22 says the became fools implying they maybe weren't always such.

That's Charles Finney talking, not the Bible. I'm concerned with what Scripture says, not a lawyer.
Jesus referred to natural man having and possessing basic rational thought, and rational thought is joined to what God is. Jesus talked about the unjust judge.....implying all should know what is really unjust and that his listeners should be able to put 2 + 2 together in understanding that. Jesus also said you which are evil would you not do this or that show compassion to an ox or livestock that needs mercy.....that's rational justice all men should know. When he says people will be without excuse rational thought would demand it would have to mean that one should have been able to do something different or they would have excuse. It really is that simple.
 
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