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logos1560 said:It is a fact that the 1611 edition of the KJV was not inerrant since it had errors in it. Many later editions of the KJV, including the 1769 edition, also had errors in them. According to what correct definition of "inerrant" and according to what sound logic, can you claim that the 1611 KJV with errors is "inerrant"?
In what year and by what publisher do you claim that the first inerrant, perfect edition of the KJV was printed? What greater authority was used to make the corrections to the actual errors found in the earlier KJV editions so that you can suggest that your present unidentified present edition is inerrant? Which specific one of the thirty or more present varying editions of the KJV in print today do you claim to be the inerrant one?
Even though printing errors occurred in 1611, still though, Almighty God in His providence and Sovereignty, saw that there were editors who corrected those printing errors. And by the way, in spite of the printing errors, that does not change the fact that the TEXT and Translation of the Authorized Version itself was and is perfect.
And so, to answer your question:
Any King James Bible that you can buy in the bookstores today, they have been purified, and the printing errors which occurred within the first 3 decades of the original printing in 1611 have been corrected long ago.