logos1560 said:
prophet said:
The middle ground is to take each version, and first look at the source of its translation, the thesis of its editor(s).
My scripturally-based position would be to take each version and evaluate it by consistent, just measures in comparison to the preserved Scriptures in the original languages, and yet you seemed to try to smear it as being extreme.
I commend you for answering forthright.
From here, we can possibly have a reasoned discussion.
I "smeared" you as extreme, not your "position", because you can't post with out deriding the other side.
Insecure much?
I don't believe that original language documents are "preserved".
I don't hold to the one -verse-based doctrine of preservation.
Now, where we agree.
Yes, each version must be given fair opportunity for consideration as Scripture.
Where we may not agree:
The first place I look, before I waste my time wading through a version, is:
1. Who edited the version, and what did they express was there intent.
Not that they will always be honest, (a prime example would be the New World Translation), but they get a chance, if we are to be reasonable.
2. What body of documents is the basis for the version?
Ex.
The E.S.V.
Many enthusiasts were claiming it was basically a Geneva in modern English.
So, I read the intro., found out that it was based on a previous modern version, as stated by the editor, and saved me from doing the legwork that had already been done on the parent version.
If we find out, through hand written letters in their own words, that Hort(and Wescott) preferred Maryolatry, and coached Wescott to keep that and other positions concealed until their published work had made it into the classroom at seminaries....then we can reasonably suspect any subsequent translation from that "original language document".
If Arthur Farstad felt that the KJV was translated from inferior documents, and wrote a book explaining his bias, then why would any reasonable man not distrust his motives for wanting to be involved in the NKJV editing?
Certainly, if the KJV was so incapable of expressing God's Word, he would have made a new translation, from his preferred documents, and not kept the tie to the inferior by naming it "New" inferior version. Right?
Darby started a sect, and so, duh!, one would suspect his "new translation" of containing bias towards the Plymouth Brethren pet doctrines.
One doesn't have to wade past Job 14 to see him building a case for pretrib and dispensational views, that he is credited as the modern purveyor of.
So we may disagree as to when the LXX existed, etc, differing sources make their cases well.
But I agree on vetting every version, and not giving it the stamp of "official" or showing it the door, without a fair review.
BTW, I reserve the right to call some versions partially God's Word, because studying shows where preferred readings have been inserted.
Why wouldn't this be considered a reasonable approach?
Haklo