Can you elaborate on how Titus 1:6 & 1 Tim 3:2 exclude the exception in Matthew 19 from applying to pastors?
Matthew 19 applies to everyone with a scriptural reason for divorce: fornication. Divorce outside of that is wrong. Divorce based on fornication is scriptural and ends the marriage, as death ends a marriage.
A divorced man who divorced because of fornication is free of that marriage and has no wife. Zero. Do we agree on that? If that man remarries ( and he is free to do so scripturally) then he has A wife. One wife. Being a pastor has nothing to do with it. Do I think there is a social stigma to it? Yes. But we don't base qualifications on social stigma.
I think there is a social stigma on a man wearing jeans and a t-shirt to preach. But that is my preference, not a scriptural qualification.
Here's an example of a pastor doing wrong: Gregg Locke pastors a church in TN. He committed adultery with another woman in his church, destroyed his marriage, his wife divorced him and he remarried the other woman.
Scripturally the man is wrong (but has 1.5 Million "Likers" on his Facebook page), but there are MANY who would hold the innocent woman, his ex-wife as GUILTY if she were to remarry. Or, if a single man married her and then he went into the ministry, there would be flames from the brethren as to how WRONG that is.
Of course. little is said of men who fornicate with multiple women, then marry, then go into the ministry, which ignores the clear scriptural teaching of "flesh joining flesh". How many "wives" did that guy have? Don't worry, we don't mention that.
I've had people tell me that if a whore gets saved, it washes away all her sin and makes her a virgin again. Man, you just can't make this stuff up. The Pharisees are everywhere.