Wine and alcohol in the Bible

BandGuy

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I had a friend post Proverbs 20:1 on the Facebook today and my curiosity was piqued about the issue of wine and alcohol in the Bible.  I looked up the Hebrew word and then found the following commentary in the Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament written by Richard Laird Harris:

864 יַיִן (yayin) wine.
Probably a loan word. It has cognates in Indo- European:Greek οἶνοσ, Latin vinum, German Wein. It also appears in the Semitic languages, Akkadian īnu, Arabic wayn (meaning "black grapes"), and Ugaritic yn (UT 19:no. 1093). The word is used 140 times, 12 of these In combination with שֵׁכָר (KJV "wine and strong drink"; NIV sometimes "wine and beer"). Its Intoxicating properties are mentioned at least twenty times. It is mentioned as a common drink, an element in banquets and as the material used in libation offerings. These are called "drink offerings" in KJV, RSV, NIV, etc., but they were not drunk.  The related Hebrew verb (נָסַךְ) means "to pour out." These offerings were poured out on the sacrifices on the brazen altar (Ex 29:40 and 30:9), but in sarcasm the heathen gods are spoken of as eating the food and drinking the drink offerings given them (Deut 32:38).  Wine was forbidden to priests while ministering (Lev 10:9- there is a hint that Nadab and Abihu in 10:1- 7 desecrated the sanctuary in drunkenness). Nazirites also and Samson's mother- to- be were to drink no wine or שֵׁכָר (NIV "fermented drink"; Jud 13:4; Num 6:3). The Israelites "ate no bread and drank no wine" during the forty years in the wilderness, (Deut 29:6). Kings were to avoid it so as to govern with a clear head (Prov 31:4- 5). Solomon warns against the use of wine because of its final tragic consequences (23:30- 31).  Abundance of wine, however, is taken as a symbol of affluence (Gen 49:11- 12; 1 Chr 12:40; Ezek 27:18). There are places that speak of the lift to the feelings that wine brings (Zech 10:7; 2 Sam 13:28; Est 1:10; Ps 104:15; Eccl 9:7- 10; 10:19; Isa 55:1). It may be questioned whether in these verses wine is commended because of this lift or if the verses use the freedom from inhibition of incipient drunkenness as a symbol of plenty and blessing- cf. Nathan's reference to David's polygamy as a symbol of God's giving him great riches (2 Sam 12: 8 ).  Wine is also used in symbolic ways of the drink that wisdom mingles (Prov 9:2), of the Lord's wrath (Jer 25:15; etc.) of disaster (Ps 60:3 [H 5]) of Babylon's judgment (Jer 51:7) of violence (Prov 4:17) and of desire (Song 1:2; 4:10).  Wine was the most intoxicating drink known In ancient times. All the wine was light wine, i. e. not fortified with extra alcohol. Concentrated alcohol was only known in the Middle Ages when the Arabs invented distillation ("alcohol" is an Arabic word) so what is now called liquor or strong drink (i. e. whiskey, gin, etc.) and the twenty per cent fortified wines were unknown In Bible times. Beer was brewed by various methods, but its alcoholic content was light. The strength of natural wines is limited by two factors.  The percentage of alcohol will be half of the percentage of the sugar in the juice. And if the alcoholic content is much above 10 or 11 percent, the yeast cells are killed and fermentation ceases. Probably ancient wines were 7- 10 per cent. Drunkenness therefore was of course an ancient curse, but alcoholism was not as common or as severe as it is today. And in an agricultural age, its effects were less deadly than now. Still, even then it had its dangers and Prov 20:1 and 23:29- 35 are emphatic in their warnings. To avoid the sin of drunkenness, mingling of wine with water was practiced. This dilution was specified by the Rabbis in NT times for the wine then customary at Passover. The original Passover did not include wine (Deut 20:6).  Related words are שֵׁכָר, probably beer, עָסִיס perhaps wine from other fruit juices (Song 8:2), תִּירוֹשׁ (q. v.) apparently the fresh juice from the vineyard, never by itself associated with intoxication.
R. L. H. 

Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament, Published by Moody Press.

Thoughts, Additions, corrections, discussions?
 
Having not ever drank anything stronger than Nyquil, a few questions come to mind out of my admitted ignorance as to how alcohol works:

1.  It seems that Harris is stating that alcohol back then could make you drunk, but not an alcoholic (which I assume means it was not addictive).  Is this possible, and if so, what is it about alcohol today that is different which makes it actually addictive?

The next question deals with the history of alcohol and Harris' assertions about its origins:

2.  Does Harris' depiction of the origins of alcohol sound correct?  Is there any other information out there?

3.  What is the difference between light and concentrated alcohol?
 
BandGuy said:
1.  It seems that Harris is stating that alcohol back then could make you drunk, but not an alcoholic (which I assume means it was not addictive).  Is this possible, and if so, what is it about alcohol today that is different which makes it actually addictive?

I assume you're referring to this?

Probably ancient wines were 7- 10 per cent. Drunkenness therefore was of course an ancient curse, but alcoholism was not as common or as severe as it is today. And in an agricultural age, its effects were less deadly than now.

I don't think he's saying there was something physically different about the alcohol. That is impossible in any case: table wine is made the same way today as back then, only with better technology, and the chemistry is identical. Yeast consumes grape sugar (glucose), and produces carbon dioxide and ethanol (C2H5OH). This reaction occurs in nature; man discovered and refined it, he didn't invent it.

Rather, I believe he means that in a nominally sober society, there was less drunkenness, and consequently less possibility of addiction. By "in an agricultural age," he probably intends to say, at a time when the danger of drunk driving, for example, was practically nonexistent.

2.  Does Harris' depiction of the origins of alcohol sound correct?  Is there any other information out there?

About Ancient Near Eastern alcoholic beverages being "light" because distillation hadn't been invented yet? Basically correct. The alcoholic content of wine or beer was limited by the natural fermentation process, which in table wine tends to top out somewhere around 9-14 percent before the reaction stops because the alcohol has killed the yeast.

3.  What is the difference between light and concentrated alcohol?

By "light" he means an alcohol content that comes about via natural fermentation (e.g. the aforementioned table wines) versus that which is increased by adding distilled ("concentrated") alcohol to the final product, as is done with fortified wines such as port or sherry.

Distillation concentrates alcohol by separating it from the product of fermentation, via evaporation and condensation. Brandy, for example, is the product of distilled wine, and whiskey is essentially distilled beer. Mix some brandy with your Pinot Noir, and you have fortified wine, of a kind.
 
Ransom said:
BandGuy said:
1.  It seems that Harris is stating that alcohol back then could make you drunk, but not an alcoholic (which I assume means it was not addictive).  Is this possible, and if so, what is it about alcohol today that is different which makes it actually addictive?

I assume you're referring to this?

Probably ancient wines were 7- 10 per cent. Drunkenness therefore was of course an ancient curse, but alcoholism was not as common or as severe as it is today. And in an agricultural age, its effects were less deadly than now.

I don't think he's saying there was something physically different about the alcohol. That is impossible in any case: table wine is made the same way today as back then, only with better technology, and the chemistry is identical. Yeast consumes grape sugar (glucose), and produces carbon dioxide and ethanol (C2H5OH). This reaction occurs in nature; man discovered and refined it, he didn't invent it.

Rather, I believe he means that in a nominally sober society, there was less drunkenness, and consequently less possibility of addiction. By "in an agricultural age," he probably intends to say, at a time when the danger of drunk driving, for example, was practically nonexistent.

2.  Does Harris' depiction of the origins of alcohol sound correct?  Is there any other information out there?

About Ancient Near Eastern alcoholic beverages being "light" because distillation hadn't been invented yet? Basically correct. The alcoholic content of wine or beer was limited by the natural fermentation process, which in table wine tends to top out somewhere around 9-14 percent before the reaction stops because the alcohol has killed the yeast.

3.  What is the difference between light and concentrated alcohol?

By "light" he means an alcohol content that comes about via natural fermentation (e.g. the aforementioned table wines) versus that which is increased by adding distilled ("concentrated") alcohol to the final product, as is done with fortified wines such as port or sherry.

Distillation concentrates alcohol by separating it from the product of fermentation, via evaporation and condensation. Brandy, for example, is the product of distilled wine, and whiskey is essentially distilled beer. Mix some brandy with your Pinot Noir, and you have fortified wine, of a kind.
Not to mention, that in an agricultural society, you wouldnt want to be drunk so often, as your life consisted of hard work 24 hours a day...stoking the overnight fire, feeding, watering livestock, watching when wolves were in the área, etc.
It all depended on you, and so, in the daytime, ...you were sober.
To fall into drunkeness, back then, would make you a beggar.
Just imagine, having to chop a tree down, cut it into lengths, split it, and haul it, with out the aid of anything more than hand tools.
You wouldnt want to be drunk, or hungover.
Anyway, he's right on.  Successful people, in that day, were probably less likely to succomb to addictions.


Anishinaabe

 
All I see is.....

To took more to get you drunk. Its doesn't mean you couldn't get drunk. Its no different than drinking a case of natural light. It might take a while, but you'll get there.

The idea that people somehow are proportionally more "drunks" today as they were in "yester year" is rather silly. We don't know. We do know there was enough of an issue that we have commands against such. I'd say.... that means there was a problem. Its not like everyone was living in a dirt house and scratching what they need to live everyday. Huge mega cities and advanced cultures existed through out the world.
 
Is the article accurate? Largely. (I did see some errors.)

Is the article unbiased? Not even remotely. It completely ignores (and or negligently dismisses) the dozens of passages where alcohol is either explicitly referred to as a blessing or clearly symbolic of blessing. As such, this is not a reliable treatment of alcohol in the Bible, and I wouldn't accept it as a serious word study.
 
rsc2a said:
Is the article accurate? Largely. (I did see some errors.)

Is the article unbiased? Not even remotely. It completely ignores (and or negligently dismisses) the dozens of passages where alcohol is either explicitly referred to as a blessing or clearly symbolic of blessing. As such, this is not a reliable treatment of alcohol in the Bible, and I wouldn't accept it as a serious word study.

I think you might have missed this part: 

Abundance of wine, however, is taken as a symbol of affluence (Gen 49:11- 12; 1 Chr 12:40; Ezek 27:18). There are places that speak of the lift to the feelings that wine brings (Zech 10:7; 2 Sam 13:28; Est 1:10; Ps 104:15; Eccl 9:7- 10; 10:19; Isa 55:1). It may be questioned whether in these verses wine is commended because of this lift or if the verses use the freedom from inhibition of incipient drunkenness as a symbol of plenty and blessing- cf. Nathan's reference to David's polygamy as a symbol of God's giving him great riches (2 Sam 12: 8 ).  Wine is also used in symbolic ways of the drink that wisdom mingles (Prov 9:2)

I think it is very clear that Harris did, indeed, mention Biblical references which refers to alcohol in a positive manner.  I also think it is important to know when discussing the bias you think there is against alcohol in this article two things:

1.  This is certainly not an exhaustive commentary on this issue.  It is simply an overview of the origins of a particular Hebrew word in the Proverbs 20:1 sandwiched in the middle of an, originally, two volume theological wordbook of thousands of Hebrew Words.  From the introduction of the set, we find the following disclaimer:

The value of books for theological word study of the Old and New Testaments has long been recognized. W. E. Vine's word studies are well- known in the New Testament field. The major work, Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, is now being matched by an extensive Theological Dictionary of the Old Testament, which will run into many volumes.
Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament follows in this tradition, but approaches the matter from a practical and less exhaustive viewpoint than the major studies.

I don't think any bias for or against alcohol was intended.

2.  Even if one were to accuse Moody Press of bias, I am not sure a good case could be made that there is a bias against alcohol based on the following statement from their spokeswoman, Christine Gorz:

Employees must adhere to all “biblical absolutes,” Gorz said, but on issues where the Bible is not clear, Moody leaves it to employees’ conscience.

http://www.religionnews.com/2013/09/19/moody-bible-institute-drops-alcohol-tobacco-ban-employees/

Certainly, I think there is more that can be discussed and explored about this topic than what is here, which is basically meant to be a short survey of the history and usage of the Hebrew word.  That is why I posted it here, to be a springboard for more discussion and in depth information about it.  I don't, however, think there was a concerted effort to obscure specific information which would have been favorable to alcohol.  Let's discuss this further and share what information we have.
 
admin said:
Crete was filled with drunken brutes. The Bible never tells us how many ounces or what the alchohol percentage is to avoid.

Just don't get drunk.

Then why drink at all?  What are you doing, drinking for the taste? I guess you could acquire a taste for anything? 

One only....one joint and a six pack....nope not drunk  :) but feeling pretty good.  :)  At this point just don't drink another or smoke another, because if you do OOOOOboy.  LOL you will be sinning. 

 
Bruh said:
One only....one joint and a six pack....nope not drunk  :) but feeling pretty good.  :)

Because everyone who drinks a little bit of alcohol really wants to drink a lot of alcohol along with using illegal drugs.

Most fundies have said this with a straight face. Fortunately, no one with a brain ever has.
 
Ransom said:
Bruh said:
One only....one joint and a six pack....nope not drunk  :) but feeling pretty good.  :)

Because everyone who drinks a little bit of alcohol really wants to drink a lot of alcohol along with using illegal drugs.

Most fundies have said this with a straight face. Fortunately, no one with a brain ever has.

I seriously laughed out loud, that's hilarious. 

That was not my intent at all, you're funny.  Really, why drink at all, for the taste? And alcohol is not a drug, right? LOL!!  Hey if you can drink let's say.....I don't know 6 or 7 beers or 2 or 3 or even one crown and coke and really enjoy the taste, have at it my friend.     

O.k on a serious note, 6 beers now that is a good buzz.....I mean really have you ever done it?  Nothing like 6 beers and a good discussion about the end times. 
 
Ransom said:
Bruh said:
One only....one joint and a six pack....nope not drunk  :) but feeling pretty good.  :)

Because everyone who drinks a little bit of alcohol really wants to drink a lot of alcohol along with using illegal drugs.

Most fundies have said this with a straight face. Fortunately, no one with a brain ever has.

Touchy touchy.  Yes, I guess you are correct, I am sooooooooooo uneducated because I disagree with you on scripture.  You must be an ex fundy you are mean.  >:(
 
BandGuy said:
rsc2a said:
Is the article accurate? Largely. (I did see some errors.)

Is the article unbiased? Not even remotely. It completely ignores (and or negligently dismisses) the dozens of passages where alcohol is either explicitly referred to as a blessing or clearly symbolic of blessing. As such, this is not a reliable treatment of alcohol in the Bible, and I wouldn't accept it as a serious word study.

I think you might have missed this part...

Nope. Didn't miss it. 

I think it is very clear that Harris did, indeed, mention Biblical references which refers to alcohol in a positive manner.

I'd probably leave it at "mention. "

I also think it is important to know when discussing the bias you think there is against alcohol in this article two things:

1.  This is certainly not an exhaustive commentary on this issue.  It is simply an overview of the origins of a particular Hebrew word in the Proverbs 20:1 sandwiched in the middle of an, originally, two volume theological wordbook of thousands of Hebrew Words.  From the introduction of the set, we find the following disclaimer:

The value of books for theological word study of the Old and New Testaments has long been recognized. W. E. Vine's word studies are well- known in the New Testament field. The major work, Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, is now being matched by an extensive Theological Dictionary of the Old Testament, which will run into many volumes.
Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament follows in this tradition, but approaches the matter from a practical and less exhaustive viewpoint than the major studies.

So it's a biased non-exhaustive source.

I don't think any bias for or against alcohol was intended.

2.  Even if one were to accuse Moody Press of bias, I am not sure a good case could be made that there is a bias against alcohol based on the following statement...

I wasn't evaluating their company positions on employee behavior,  just the article.
 
rsc2a said:
BandGuy said:
rsc2a said:
Is the article accurate? Largely. (I did see some errors.)

Is the article unbiased? Not even remotely. It completely ignores (and or negligently dismisses) the dozens of passages where alcohol is either explicitly referred to as a blessing or clearly symbolic of blessing. As such, this is not a reliable treatment of alcohol in the Bible, and I wouldn't accept it as a serious word study.

I think you might have missed this part...

Nope. Didn't miss it. 

I think it is very clear that Harris did, indeed, mention Biblical references which refers to alcohol in a positive manner.

I'd probably leave it at "mention. "

I also think it is important to know when discussing the bias you think there is against alcohol in this article two things:

1.  This is certainly not an exhaustive commentary on this issue.  It is simply an overview of the origins of a particular Hebrew word in the Proverbs 20:1 sandwiched in the middle of an, originally, two volume theological wordbook of thousands of Hebrew Words.  From the introduction of the set, we find the following disclaimer:

The value of books for theological word study of the Old and New Testaments has long been recognized. W. E. Vine's word studies are well- known in the New Testament field. The major work, Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, is now being matched by an extensive Theological Dictionary of the Old Testament, which will run into many volumes.
Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament follows in this tradition, but approaches the matter from a practical and less exhaustive viewpoint than the major studies.

So it's a biased non-exhaustive source.

I don't think any bias for or against alcohol was intended.

2.  Even if one were to accuse Moody Press of bias, I am not sure a good case could be made that there is a bias against alcohol based on the following statement...

I wasn't evaluating their company positions on employee behavior,  just the article.

It appears to me that you seem to assume a very negative motive of the author of that excerpt from the book, R. Laird Harris.  Is there something about the man that I don't know about that makes you assume an anti-alcohol bias, because, honestly, I didn't get a bias out of what he wrote?  As a matter of fact, I felt as if several of his points seemed to indicate quite the opposite to me.
 
[quote author=BandGuy]It appears to me that you seem to assume a very negative motive of the author of that excerpt from the book, R. Laird Harris.  Is there something about the man that I don't know about that makes you assume an anti-alcohol bias, because, honestly, I didn't get a bias out of what he wrote?  As a matter of fact, I felt as if several of his points seemed to indicate quite the opposite to me.[/quote]

"Here's all these verses where alcohol is mentioned negatively. There are a couple where it might possibly be mentioned positively but we cannot be certain if this is really the case. Oh yeah...and here is why the text says wine or strong drink but doesn't really mean that."
 
rsc2a said:
Is the article accurate? Largely. (I did see some errors.)

Is the article unbiased? Not even remotely. It completely ignores (and or negligently dismisses) the dozens of passages where alcohol is either explicitly referred to as a blessing or clearly symbolic of blessing.

Could you list some or all of these passages?  I would be more than interested in looking at these passages.  In my short searches, I have found about 3 from the Old Testament which uses the same Hebrew word in a positive manner, one of which I found through the article being critiqued by you.

Thanks.
 
https://bible.org/article/bible-and-alcohol

 
Bruh said:
O.k on a serious note, 6 beers now that is a good buzz.....I mean really have you ever done it?  Nothing like 6 beers and a good discussion about the end times.

I've never had 6 beers at a sitting.  I could probably drink 6 beers without getting drunk, though.  I'm pretty fat, and that makes a huge difference in the amount of alcohol you must consume to get a higher blood-alcohol-level. 

I have lost 30 lb. in the last 4 months, though, woohoo!  And I intend to lose a lot more, God willing.
 
The Rogue Tomato said:
Bruh said:
O.k on a serious note, 6 beers now that is a good buzz.....I mean really have you ever done it?  Nothing like 6 beers and a good discussion about the end times.

I've never had 6 beers at a sitting.  I could probably drink 6 beers without getting drunk, though.  I'm pretty fat, and that makes a huge difference in the amount of alcohol you must consume to get a higher blood-alcohol-level. 

I have lost 30 lb. in the last 4 months, though, woohoo!  And I intend to lose a lot more, God willing.

I'm just trying to figure out, what would the purpose be for consuming any alcoholic beverage? Other than to stimulate the mind and or body. 
Just sayn. 
 
Why would anyone have a problem stimulating the mind and/or body?

Well, why would any Christian have a problem with it? I could understand a Buddhist's concern.
 
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